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NewsFleet SafetyPipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTOffice of the Secretary of TransportationHazmat SafetyRulemakingFocus AreaProposed RuleEnglishTransportationUSA
89 FR 82957 Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
2024-10-15T05:00:00Z
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Office of the Secretary
49 CFR Part 40
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
49 CFR Part 199
[Docket DOT-OST-2022-0027]
RIN 2105-AF01
Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
AGENCY: Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
SUMMARY: The Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) proposes to amend its regulations for conducting workplace drug and alcohol testing for the federally regulated transportation industry to allow, but not require, electronic signatures on documents required to be created and utilized under the regulations, the use of electronic versions of forms, and the electronic storage of forms and data. The regulatory changes would apply to DOT-regulated employers and their contractors (“service agents”) who administer their DOT-regulated drug and alcohol testing programs. Currently, employers and their service agents must use, sign and store paper documents exclusively, unless the employer is utilizing a laboratory's electronic Federal Drug Testing Custody and Control Form (electronic CCF) system that has been approved by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). DOT is required by statute to amend its regulations to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms. This rulemaking also responds to an April 2, 2020, petition for rulemaking from DISA Global Solutions, Inc. (DISA), requesting that DOT regulations be amended to allow the use of an electronic version of the alcohol testing form (ATF) for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. The proposed regulatory amendments are expected to provide additional flexibility and reduced costs for the industry while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the drug and alcohol testing regulations. In addition, DOT proposes to amend the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) regulation for conformity and to make other miscellaneous technical changes and corrections.
DATES: Comments on this NPRM must be received on or before December 16, 2024.
ADDRESSES: You may submit comments identified by Docket Number DOT-OST-2022-0027 using any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
• Mail: Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
• Hand Delivery or Courier: West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION section for instructions on submitting comments, including collection of information comments for the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Mike Huntley, Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590; telephone number 202-366-3784; ODAPCwebmail@dot.gov. If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
This NPRM is organized as follows:
I. Executive Summary
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
C. Privacy Act
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
IV. Background
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
VIII. Electronic ATF
IX. Section-by-Section Analysis
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
I. Executive Summary
Purpose and Summary of the Major Provisions
This proposed rule would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures and expand businesses' and individuals' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the Department's drug and alcohol testing regulation, 49 CFR part 40, “Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs” (part 40). Businesses and individuals subject to part 40 would continue to have the choice to use paper documents and traditional “wet” signatures. This proposed rule would also modify references to recordkeeping and reporting methods throughout part 40 to make them technologically neutral.
This proposed rulemaking responds to a statutory mandate set forth in section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271 (see 49 U.S.C. 322 note). The proposed rulemaking would take action consistent with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA) (division C, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, Pub. L. 105-277) and the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN) (Pub. L. 106-229) with regard to DOT's part 40 regulations.
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this NPRM (Docket No. DOT-OST-2022-0027), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. The Office of the Secretary (OST) recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in a cover letter or an email so that OST can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document, click on this NPRM, click “Comment,” and type your comment into the text box on the following screen.
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8 1/2 by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit comments by mail and would like to know that they reached the facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope.
OST will consider all comments and material received during the comment period in determining how to proceed with any final rule.
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as available in the docket, go to https://www.regulations.gov. Insert the docket number, DOT-OST-2022-0027, in the keyword box, and click “Search.” Next, click the “Open Docket Folder” button and choose the document to review. If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting the Docket Management Facility in Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting the Docket Management Facility.
C. Privacy Act
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to www.regulations.gov, as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices under the heading of “Department-Wide System of Records Notices”.
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority enacted in the Omnibus Transportation Employee Testing Act of 1991 (OTETA) (Pub. L. 102-143, tit. V, 105 Stat. 952) and codified at 49 U.S.C. 45102 (aviation), 49 U.S.C. 20140 (rail), 49 U.S.C. 31306 (motor carrier), and 49 U.S.C. 5331 (public transportation), as well as the Department's authority in 49 U.S.C. 322 and the PHMSA authorities specified in the proposed regulatory text for this action.
According to Public Law 115-271, the Secretary of Transportation is required to “issue a final rule revising part 40 of title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms.” (49 U.S.C. 322 note) The statute set the deadline for this action as not later than 18 months after HHS establishes a deadline for a certified laboratory to request approval for fully electronic CCFs ( Id. ) On April 7, 2022, HHS set that deadline as August 31, 2023 (87 FR 20528). HHS has extended the deadline to August 31, 2026, to enable sufficient time for all HHS-certified laboratories to identify and contract with an electronic CCF supplier or to develop an electronic CCF. The deadline for DOT's regulatory amendments would therefore be February 29, 2028.
There are two additional Federal statutes relevant to the implementation of electronic document and signature requirements.
The Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA), codified at 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 1 was enacted to improve customer service and governmental efficiency through the use of information technology. The GPEA defines an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (a) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (b) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. Id. It also requires OMB to ensure Federal agencies provide for: (a) the option of maintaining, submitting; or disclosing information electronically, when practicable; and (b) the use and acceptance of electronic signatures when practicable. The GPEA states that electronic records submitted pursuant to procedures developed under title XVII for the submission of records to Federal agencies and electronic signatures used in accordance with those procedures shall not be denied legal effect, validity, or enforceability merely because they are in electronic form. Id.
1 Division C, title XVII (sec. 1701-1710) of Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681-749, enacted on October 21, 1998.
The Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN), codified at 15 U.S.C. 7001-7031, 2 was designed to promote the use of electronic contract formation, signatures, and recordkeeping in private commerce by establishing legal equivalence between traditional paper-based methods and electronic methods. The E-SIGN Act allows the use of electronic records to satisfy any statute, regulation, or rule of law requiring that such information be provided in writing if the consumer has affirmatively consented to such use and has not withdrawn consent. Specifically, the statute establishes the legal equivalence of the following types of documents with respect to any transaction in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, whether in traditional paper or electronic form: (a) contracts, (b) signatures, and (c) other records (15 U.S.C. 7001(a)(1)).
2 Public Law 106-229, 114 Stat. 464, enacted on June 30, 2000.
IV. Background
The Department's drug and alcohol testing regulations were promulgated at a time when the ability to sign and retain official records electronically—now commonplace in many business segments—was not available. Over the course of several years, we have adopted measures that have reduced the paper documentation associated with the drug and alcohol testing program without compromising the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program. In 2003, we standardized the form for employers to report their Management Information System (MIS) aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected. 3 When creating a ONE-DOT MIS Form, we then authorized employers to submit a single standardized form via a web portal. In 2015, we issued a final rule to allow employers, collectors, laboratories, and medical review officers (MROs) to use the electronic version of the Federal Drug Testing CCF in the DOT-regulated drug testing program. 4 That final rule also incorporated into the regulations the requirement to establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons when using the electronic CCF. We also included language protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form when using the electronic CCF.
3 68 FR 43946 (July 25, 2003).
4 80 FR 19551 (Apr. 13, 2015).
Consistent with the statutory mandate in 49 U.S.C. 322 note, we propose amendments to part 40 to permit the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for drug and alcohol testing records throughout the regulation, including the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. We emphasize that electronic signatures, forms, and records would not be required; we would continue to allow paper, or hard-copy use with traditional “wet signatures.”
These proposed amendments would establish parity between paper and electronic collection and submission of information required under our regulations (and remain compatible with applicable OMB guidance on implementing electronic signatures 5 ) by allowing further use of electronic means and methods to comply with part 40 requirements. Many employers and their service agents have already instituted the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for the non-DOT regulated testing that they conduct. DOT supports this transition to a paperless system and is committed to ensuring that the movement to a partially or fully electronic part 40 is done to maximize program efficiencies and reduce costs, while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program.
5https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/2000-M-00-15-OMB-Guidance-on-Implementing-the-Electronic-Signatures-in-Global-and-National-Commerce-Act.pdf.
Electronic documents would have a high degree of forensic defensibility as long as any changes made to the document are in the document's electronic footprint, which shows when the document or signature, as applicable, was created; when, and if, changes were made; who made the changes; and when, as applicable, a document was transmitted to and received by the receiving entity. The use of electronic forms and signatures in part 40 would help DOT-regulated employers and their service agents improve their workflow efficiency through faster turnaround times for required documents. Cost savings would result through reduced printing and delivery/shipping costs, and expedited transmission of information allowing for more timely decisions. We believe this proposed rule, if adopted, would also mitigate the longstanding problems ( e.g., delays in processing times of test results, cancelling of test results, etc.) associated with illegible and lost copies of paper documents.
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
On August 5, 2022, we published an ANPRM requesting public comment on how part 40 could be amended, as required by the statute, to allow electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping (87 FR 47951). We requested information from DOT-regulated employers and their service agents regarding if and how they are already handling electronic signatures, records transmission, and records storage in their non-DOT testing programs. In addition, we requested comments and information on appropriate performance standards, and on whether particular methods or performance standards have been successful or unsuccessful. We also asked a number of general questions on the potential advantages, risks, ramifications, and required safeguards associated with the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records in the DOT drug and alcohol testing program. We asked questions about specific sections of part 40 that we anticipated would be affected by prospective changes to implement electronic signatures, forms, and records. Finally, we asked a number of questions regarding the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol tests.
We received 72 comments in response to the ANPRM, including comments from individuals, testing laboratories, MROs, and MRO organizations, substance abuse professionals (SAP) and SAP organizations, and various associations representing DOT-regulated transportation workers subject to mandatory drug and alcohol testing under part 40.
A few individuals expressed opposition to the adoption of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, citing concerns about the need for the rulemaking, risk to personal information from hackers or mismanaged electronic processes and procedures, and misuse of electronic forms and signatures. To meet our statutory mandate and in consideration of concerns about safeguarding personal information and appropriate use of the information in developing the NPRM, DOT proposes to require security measures for electronic forms and signatures used under part 40 that are the same as those currently in place for the electronic CCF specified in 49 CFR 40.40(c)(5).
Most commenters were supportive of changes to amend part 40 that would permit, but not require, the use of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping. Commenters supporting revisions to part 40 noted that electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping are used in virtually every industry today—including but not limited to the banking, insurance, medical, and legal industries. Commenters supported the use of performance standards instead of technology-specific standards to ensure that, once established, standards do not become obsolete given the rapidly evolving nature of information technology standards and practices. Commenters stated that allowing electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping would make the drug testing process much more efficient and would result in cost savings. Commenters also stated that it would be safer to store records electronically since records could be backed-up, secured, and protected from tampering and unauthorized access and use.
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
In developing this NPRM, we looked to a rule promulgated by DOT's FMCSA that permits the use of electronic methods to generate, certify, sign, maintain, or exchange records so long as the documents accurately reflect the required information and can be used for their intended purpose. (83 FR 16210, Apr. 16, 2018) The rule applies to documents that FMCSA requires entities or individuals to retain. FMCSA permits, but does not require, anyone to satisfy FMCSA requirements by using electronic methods to generate, maintain, or exchange documents. The substance of the document must otherwise comply with applicable Federal laws and FMCSA rules. FMCSA also permits, but does not require, anyone required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures, defined, as in the GPEA, as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (1) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (2) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. FMCSA allows for the use any available technology for electronic signatures, so long as the signature otherwise complies with FMCSA's requirements.
FMCSA adopted broad performance standards for electronic documents and signatures—as specified in GPEA and E-SIGN—rather than detailed, technology specific standards that would likely become obsolete with inevitable changes in information technology standards and practices. FMCSA's April 2018 rule has been in effect for more than five years, and the definitions and requirements established in that rule have stood the test of time despite the many changes that have occurred with respect to electronic documents and signatures. We are unaware of any FMCSA-regulated entities that have reported issues to FMCSA regarding the use of electronic documents or signatures to meet the requirements of the FMCSRs since the rule became effective in 2018.
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
In this NPRM, we propose to permit but not require electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping in part 40. Additionally, we propose a performance standard approach as opposed to establishing technology-specific standards. Where it is possible to do so, establishing the same or substantively similar regulatory requirements for common issues across DOT modal agencies—such as the use of electronic documents and signatures—helps the Department maintain a consistent regulatory approach for those common issues.
There are currently more than 60 references to the term “written” in part 40, and more than 20 additional references to the term “in writing.” We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing” in part 40, to eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic documentation and establish technological neutrality throughout the entirety of part 40.
FMCSA's rule does not apply to documents that individuals or entities are required to file directly with FMCSA. In its April 2018 final rule, FMCSA explained that while industry could use electronic signatures and submit information directly to the FMCSA in certain situations, 6 adapting all FMCSA systems to allow for use of electronic signatures and submissions would significantly delay the implementation of the rule for use by third parties as it would require FMCSA to develop and implement technology systems to allow for direct submission to FMCSA from regulated parties. FMCSA noted that development of such systems could take several years, and therefore saw no reason to make private parties' use of electronic signatures and records retention contingent upon FMCSA's ability to receive submissions electronically because doing so would delay potential benefits to be gained by third parties.
6 As an example, Certified Medical Examiners may use electronic signatures, if they choose to do so, to sign medical forms, certificates, and a new driver medication report. If FMCSA requests these forms, they are uploaded in portable document format (PDF) to the Medical Examiner's account associated with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners for FMCSA to access.
In contrast to FMCSA's regulations, part 40 does not require entities or individuals to submit documents directly to the Department except for MIS aggregate drug and alcohol testing data that employers subject to DOT or U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) drug and alcohol testing regulations must submit annually. Each of the various documents required and used as part of the DOT drug and alcohol testing program under part 40 ( e.g., employee drug and alcohol testing records, MRO reports and records, SAP reports and records) are documents that are created by, exchanged between, and maintained by a person or entity involved in the testing process—but are not required to be submitted directly to DOT.
As noted earlier, and specifically with respect to the required MIS data, we standardized the form for employers to report their aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected, more than 20 years ago. At that time, we authorized employers to submit the ONE-DOT MIS form via a web portal. Today, the Federal Aviation Administration, FMCSA, Federal Railroad Administration, and Federal Transit Administration permit employers to submit that same drug and alcohol testing data via the internet, and PHMSA requires that the data be submitted electronically. If employers submit the data electronically via the internet, they are not required to submit a hard copy. DOT recommends that employers have a copy of their data available (either hard copy or in electronic format) in the event an auditor or inspector requests a copy.
From the above, and because the only documents that part 40 requires to be submitted directly to the Department are already permitted to be, and in some cases required to be, submitted electronically, there is no need for us to limit the applicability of our proposal as FMCSA did in its 2018 final rule.
Several commenters noted that they already use electronic signatures and documents for their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing program, and in some cases, have done so for many years. In doing so, these commenters have had to establish appropriate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons, including protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The same general requirements were added to the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved the use of the electronic CCF for use in DOT drug testing in 2015, 7 and we propose the same requirements in this NPRM for the use of electronic signatures, documents, and recordkeeping throughout the entirety of part 40.
7 The 2015 revisions amended then §40.45(c)(5), which was redesignated as §40.40(c)(5) in the May 2023 final rule to include oral fluid testing in the DOT drug testing program (88 FR 27596, May 2, 2023).
Ensuring that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons is an important element of part 40's protections for employees that are subject to DOT's drug and alcohol testing rules. We believe that the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system should constitute the basis for the Department to start a public interest exclusion (PIE) proceeding, and propose to add this to the list of examples provided in §40.365(b).
Throughout part 40, information and documents are required to be transmitted and/or communicated between service agents ( e.g., collectors, screening test technicians (STTs) and breath alcohol technicians (BATs), laboratories, MROs, SAPs, and consortium/third party administrators (C/TPAs)), employers, and employees). Although part 40 does not currently require the party receiving these communications and/or documents to affirmatively confirm receipt of such from the sender, in some instances, regardless of whether the document is electronic or a hard copy, we believe that it may be important for the receiving party to verify that those required communications and/or documents were received.
For example, under §40.25, an employer intending to use an employee to perform safety-sensitive functions must, after obtaining an employee's written consent, request information about the employee's drug and alcohol testing record from previous DOT-regulated employers. After receiving a copy of the employee's written consent, the previous employer must immediately provide the requested information to the employer making the inquiry. If an employer is subsequently investigated/audited by the appropriate DOT mode, it may be beneficial for both the gaining employer and the previous employer to be able to affirmatively demonstrate that the employee's written consent and previous testing record were sent and received as required.
Sections 40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) require a collector or MRO (for drug tests) or a BAT, STT, or a physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation (for alcohol tests), respectively, to—when an employee refuses to participate in a part of the testing process—terminate the testing process, document the refusal, and immediately and directly notify the employer's designated employer representative (DER) by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. Because this notification of a refusal to an employer is of an urgent nature, it may be advisable to require the DER to affirmatively confirm receipt of the required notification from the collector, MRO, BAT, STT, or physician. For example, §§40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) could be amended to read “. . . immediately notify the DER by any means and ensure that the refusal notification is immediately received”.
While we are not proposing new requirements in this NPRM regarding confirmation of receipt in the sections discussed above (or in other part 40 requirements), we seek comment regarding whether it may be beneficial or advisable to do so, and if so, for which specific sections of part 40.
VIII. Electronic ATF
The ATF has been in use in the DOT alcohol testing program since 1994 (see 59 FR 7349, Feb. 15, 1994). The ATF must be used to document every DOT alcohol test. DOT regulations at 49 CFR 40.225 set forth the requirements for use of the form, and 49 CFR part 40, appendix G, contains a facsimile (reference copy) of the form. The ATF is a three-part carbonless manifold form used by DOT-regulated employers to document the testing event when testing employees subject to DOT alcohol testing. When the employee is tested, both the employee and the STT and/or the BAT will complete the ATF in various sections. The STT/BAT documents the result(s) by either writing in the screening result or attaching the screening and/or confirmation result printed by the evidential breath testing devices (EBT) onto the ATF, and then sends Copy 1 to the employer, provides Copy 2 to the employee, and retains Copy 3 for their records.
On April 2, 2020, DISA petitioned the Department to amend part 40 to allow for the use of an electronic version of the ATF for DOT mandated alcohol testing. In support of its petition, DISA stated that “The requested amendment to 49 CFR part 40 will enable a parallel process for the documentation of DOT-mandated alcohol tests aligned with the similarly situated amendment previously approved for drug testing.” DISA believes that allowing the use of an electronic ATF will result in several benefits to the industry, including “increased efficiency, security and accuracy in documentation of DOT alcohol tests; paperwork reduction; improved process for conducting a DOT alcohol test in conjunction with a DOT drug test when an electronic version of the federal CCF is used for the drug test; reduction of errors and omissions in the completion of the ATF; and improved efficiency and efficacy in the transmission and record retention of alcohol test results.”
DISA noted that non-DOT workplace breath alcohol testing has been conducted using electronic versions of an alcohol testing form that mirrors the DOT ATF for more than five years. Based on experience using those electronic forms for non-DOT testing, DISA cites improved efficiency and accuracy of documentation because: (1) employer and employee information is entered via computer and thus not dependent on reading and deciphering hand-written entries, (2) date time stamps of the testing are automated and not subject to fluctuation or error, (3) transmission of documentation on completed tests is more secure using databases accessed only via protected password and personal identification number (PIN) to authorized employers or their designated agents, and (4) transmission of test result information is faster and more secure than existing transmission options of scanning and emailing attachments or facsimile.
DISA also noted that permitting use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing “will substantially reduce cost, by eliminating the requirement for the printing and distribution of carbonless three-ply paper ATFs. The proposed electronic ATF option would still provide for printed paper images to be made available to the employee, the employer, and the alcohol technician, [but] eliminates the requirement for the more expensive carbonless 3 ply paper ATF.”
For the reasons described by DISA in its petition, and recognizing that significant benefits and cost reductions have resulted from use of the electronic CCF for drug testing, we believe that it is likewise appropriate to permit the use of electronic ATFs in part 40 for DOT-regulated testing. Permitting but not requiring the use of an electronic ATF would be consistent with our proposal to permit, but not require, the use of electronic documents and signatures throughout the entirety of part 40 as discussed above. As several commenters noted, the use of an electronic ATF has been used in non-DOT testing for 5-10 years, and the same developers of the electronic CCFs have developed the electronic ATFs. Any electronic ATF used under part 40 for DOT-regulated employees would have to be identical in form and content to the DOT ATF in appendix I to part 40. 8 Just as we imposed general confidentiality and security requirements when electronic CCFs were permitted to be used under part 40, we believe that it is necessary to include the same general requirements relating to the use of electronic ATFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
8 The ATF form was redesignated from appendix G to appendix I as part of the rulemaking process culminating in the May 2023 final rule. During that process, the form was reviewed by the public and DOT received no comment on the form.
Manufacturers of EBTs and alcohol screening devices (ASD) used in DOT alcohol tests must obtain approval from the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) and then be listed on the Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance's (ODAPC) website before those devices may be used in DOT alcohol testing.
IX. PHMSA Proposed Changes
PHMSA is proposing to amend §§199.3, 199.117, and 199.227 and to add §199.4 to conform to the proposed changes in part 40 and to clarify that the proposed changes in part 40 apply to part 199. These changes will help the readers of part 199 find the applicable regulations in part 40 with regards to the definition of terms and record keeping requirements. We also propose to amend §§199.119 and 199.229 by changing the reference of “appendix H” to “appendix J” to conform to the amendment of part 40 published on May 2, 2023.
X. Section-by-Section Analysis
Section 40.3 What do the terms used in this regulation mean?
We propose to add a definition of “electronic signature.” The rule would define an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 112 Stat. 2681-749). Including the specific cross reference to GPEA would ensure that regulated entities know that we are using GPEA's performance standard for allowing use of electronic signatures.
We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing.” The rule would define written or in writing as printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of 49 CFR 40.4. This definition would eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic methods of communication/documentation.
Section 40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
We propose to add a new §40.4 that would prescribe the requirements pertaining to electronic documents and signatures throughout part 40.
Paragraph (a) would specify that §40.4 would apply to all documents required by part 40, except for the CCF, as an electronic CCF may only be used when approved by HHS and in compliance with §40.40(c)(5). As background, before an HHS-certified laboratory can use a Federal electronic CCF for regulated specimens, the test facility must submit a detailed plan and proposed standard operating procedures for the electronic CCF system for HHS review and approval through the National Laboratory Certification Program. At the current time, several HHS-certified laboratories have received approval to use a combination electronic/paper CCF, while four laboratories have received approval to use a fully electronic CCF. As noted earlier, and in a separate section of the SUPPORT Act, HHS was required to set a deadline for certified laboratories to request approval for use of fully electronic CCFs. That deadline is now August 31, 2026.
Paragraph (b) would permit, but not require, any person or entity to use electronic methods to comply with any provision in part 40 that requires a document to be signed, certified, generated, maintained, or transmitted between parties. It would apply to all forms of written documentation, including forms, records, notations, and other documents. The substance of the document would otherwise have to comply with part 40 requirements. This would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures, greatly expanding interested parties' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (c) would permit, but not require, any entity required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures as defined in §40.3. The rule specifies that a person may use any available technology so long as the signature otherwise complies with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (d) would establish the minimum requirements for electronic documents and signatures. Any electronic document or signature would be considered the legal equivalent of a paper document or signature if it is the functional equivalent with respect to integrity, accuracy, and accessibility. In other words, the electronic documents or signatures need to accurately and reliably reflect the information in the record. They must remain accessible in a form that could be accurately viewed or reproduced according to Agency rules. As with any documents, paper or electronic, documents that are not legible—for any reason—do not satisfy the Department's requirements.
Electronic documents are not to be considered the legal equivalent of traditional paper documents if they (1) are not capable of being retained, (2) are not used for the purpose for which they were created, or (3) cannot be accurately reproduced for reference by any entity entitled to access by law, for the period of time required by the Department's recordkeeping requirements.
Paragraph (d) would also require that any electronically signed documents must incorporate or otherwise include evidence that both parties to the document have consented to the use of electronic signatures, as required by the E-SIGN Act (15 U.S.C. 7001(c)).
Paragraph (e) would require that when using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The proposed requirements are analogous to those established in the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved use of the electronic CCF in part 40.
Section 40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
Currently, paragraph (g) makes it clear that the release of information under this section must be in any written form, and the parenthetical clarifies that this can be paper-based (written, fax) or electronic (email). Under the proposed definition of “written or in writing,” there is no distinction between paper-based and electronic communications. Because “written or in writing” would mean either paper or electronic communications, we propose to remove parenthetical reference to “fax, email, letter” to eliminate redundancy and confusion. All parties can conduct their business using either paper or electronic means of documentation and communication.
Section 40.79 How is the collection process completed?
Currently, paragraph (a)(9) of this section requires the collector to “fax or otherwise transmit” Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. We propose to amend this section by removing reference to the methods of transmitting receipts, so parties can choose their own medium of communication.
Section 40.97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.111 When and how must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to amend paragraph (b) of this section to remove the references to the methods of transmitting the summary or report required by this section. Because the summary or report can be transmitted via hard copy or electronically, there is no need to specify how it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
Section 40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to remove the reference to a “letter” in paragraph (c) of this section. In paragraph (e) of this section, we propose to replace the term “letter” with “written report” for consistency with paragraph (c).
Section 40.167 How are MRO reports of drug results transmitted to the employer?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
Section 40.185 Through what methods and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (b) of this section. In addition, because Copy 1 of the CCF can be transmitted in writing or electronically, there is no need to specify the methods through which it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.
Section 40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (d) of this section as means of transmitting notification that an employee has refused to participate in part of the testing process from the collector or MRO to the DER.
Section 40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of urine for a drug test?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “send or fax” as the means for the collector to transmit copies of the CCF to the MRO and the DER in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
Section 40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a collector, laboratory, MRO, employer, or other person to supply signed statements regarding correctable problems in a drug test in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
We propose to amend this section to permit, but not require, the use of an electronic version of the DOT ATF that is identical in form and content to the form provided in appendix I to part 40. The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT, and if an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results pursuant to §40.253(g), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout. This section would also be amended to specify the same general confidentiality and security measures in §40.45 relating to electronic CCFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
Section 40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section as means of transmitting results of the alcohol confirmation test from the BAT to the DER. Similarly, there is no need to specify that Copy 1 of the ATF may be transmitted “in person, by telephone, or by electronic means.”
Section 40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (c) of this section as means of transmitting a refusal notification from a BAT, STT, or referral physician to the DER.
Section 40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a STT, BAT, employer, or other service agent to supply a signed statement regarding correctable flaws in an alcohol test in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
We propose to amend this section by adding a new paragraph (b)(15) that would identify the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system as appropriate grounds for starting a PIE proceeding.
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 (Regulatory Planning and Review)
The Secretary has examined the impact of the proposed part 40 amendments under Executive Order 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”), as supplemented by Executive Order 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) and amended by Executive Order 14094 (“Modernizing Regulatory Review”), which directs Federal agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity).
According to these Executive orders, a regulatory action is “significant” if it meets any one of a number of specified conditions, including having an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more, as adjusted every three years by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA); adversely affecting in a material way a sector of the economy, competition, or jobs; or if it raises novel legal or policy issues. The proposed amendments, which would allow the use of electronic documents and signatures, do not meet the Executive order's criteria for being a significant rule. Consequently, OMB has determined that the rulemaking action is not significant under the Executive order.
The proposed rule responds to the statutory mandate set forth in Section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271. The proposed rule would not impose new requirements on the industry; rather, it would simply permit—but not require—regulated entities to use electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, and remove outdated and obsolete references in the regulatory text. The proposed rule would not impose new costs on the industry because regulated entities would be allowed to choose to continue to use paper-based documents as they had before. The benefits of the rule would stem from savings in paper and printing expense and other efficiency gains. Examples of documents affected by this rule include, but are not limited to, records of a prospective employee's drug and alcohol testing history that employers must obtain prior to permitting that employee to perform safety-sensitive duties, MRO records and reports, SAP records and reports, and ATFs. While there is no way to estimate how many entities or individuals would change their practices given the new options, or how many documents would be affected, several commenters to the ANPRM stated that they have been using electronic documents and signatures in their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing programs for many years. While neither the benefits nor the costs of this rule can be reliably estimated, we expect this proposed rule to provide flexibility to the industry. Under this proposed rule, regulated entities would have the flexibility to conduct business using either electronic or traditional paper-based methods. We also expect regulated entities to choose technologies that would maximize benefits in accordance with their individual needs and circumstances.
Regulatory Flexibility Act and Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA)
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq. ) requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of their regulatory actions on small businesses and other small entities and minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with a population of less than 50,000. For this rulemaking, potentially affected small entities include drug testing companies (U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Sector 54 (Professional, Scientific and Technical Services), Code 541380 (Testing Laboratories and Services)) as well as DOT-regulated entities (SBA NAICS Sectors 48-49 (Transportation and Warehousing)).
The Department does not expect that the proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed rule, if adopted, would increase flexibility for all small-entity transportation employers and their service agents by allowing them to use electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping to meet part 40 requirements. Use of electronic documents, electronic signatures, and electronic recordkeeping would be voluntary for affected small entities, which will provide added flexibility to these entities in meeting the part 40 requirements. For these reasons, and as explained in more detail in the preamble to this proposed rule, the Secretary certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Consequently, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required for this proposed rule.
Unfunded Mandates
The Secretary has examined the impact of the final rule under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). This NPRM does not trigger the requirement for a written statement under sec. 202(a) of the UMRA because this rulemaking does not impose a mandate that results in an expenditure of $100 million (adjusted annually for inflation) or more by either State, local, and tribal governments in the aggregate or by the private sector in any one year. In fact, by providing an alternative to traditional paper-based records, the proposed rule would be expected to reduce costs to regulated parties, including State and local entities ( e.g., public transit authorities, and public works departments) whose employees are subject to testing and that choose to use electronic documents as opposed to paper-based documents.
Environmental Impact
The DOT has analyzed the environmental impacts of this action pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. ) and has determined that it is categorically excluded pursuant to DOT Order 5610.1C, “Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts” (44 FR 56420, October 1, 1979). Categorical exclusions are actions identified in an agency's NEPA implementing procedures that do not normally have a significant impact on the environment and therefore do not require either an environmental assessment (EA) or environmental impact statement (EIS). This proposed rule would amend the transportation industry drug testing program procedures regulation to permit the use of electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping. This action is covered by the categorical exclusion listed at 23 CFR 771.118(c)(4), “[p]lanning and administrative activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction, such as: . . . promulgation of rules, regulations, directives . . .” The Department does not anticipate any environmental impacts, and there are no extraordinary circumstances present in connection with this rulemaking.
Executive Order 13132: Federalism
The Secretary has analyzed the final rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132: Federalism. Executive Order 13132 requires Federal agencies to carefully examine actions to determine if they contain policies that have federalism implications or that preempt State law. As defined in the order, “policies that have federalism implications” refer to regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
Most of the regulated parties under the Department's drug testing program are private entities. Some regulated entities are public entities ( e.g., transit authorities and public works departments); however, as noted above, this proposal would reduce costs of the Department's drug testing program and provide additional flexibility for regulated parties. Accordingly, the Secretary has determined that the proposed rule, which would allow but not require use of electronic signatures and recordkeeping, does not contain policies that have federalism implications.
Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments
Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 6, 2000) requires Federal agencies to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by tribal officials in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications.” “Policies that have tribal implications” as defined in the Executive order, include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and the Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes.” This proposed rule does not have tribal implications. The proposed rule will also not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175.
Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) requires that DOT consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the PRA. Instead, there would likely be a significant reduction in the burden hours required for information collection 2105-0529, Procedures for Transportation Drug and Alcohol Testing Program, due to the ability to use electronic signatures and forms, and largely due to the ability to use an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing under part 40. We request comments on this issue. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a currently valid OMB control number.
Privacy Act
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received in any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.) For information on DOT's compliance with the Privacy Act, please visit https://www.transportation.gov/privacy.
5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4)
As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this proposed rule can be found at the entry for RIN 2105-AF01 in the Department's Portion of the Unified Agenda of Regulatory and Deregulatory Affairs, available at https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202404&RIN=2105-AF01 .
Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023
In accordance with Compliance with Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 (Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2023, Pub. L. 118-5, div. B, title III) and OMB Memorandum (M-23-21) dated September 1, 2023, the Department has determined that this proposed rule is not subject to the Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 because it will not increase direct spending beyond specified thresholds.
List of Subjects
49 CFR Part 40
Administrative practice and procedures, Alcohol abuse, Alcohol testing, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Laboratories, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
49 CFR Part 199
Alcohol testing, Drug testing, Pipeline safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department proposes to amend 49 CFR parts 40 and 199 as follows:
PART 40—PROCEDURES FOR TRANSPORTATION WORKPLACE DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING PROGRAMS
1. The authority for part 40 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 102, 301, 322, 5331, 20140, 31306, and 54101 et seq.
2. In §40.3, add the definitions of “Electronic signature” and “Written or in writing” in alphabetical order to read as follows:
§40.3 What do the terms used in this part mean?
* * * * *
Electronic signature. A method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 112 Stat. 2681-749, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note).
* * * * *
Written or in writing. Printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of §40.4.
3. Add §40.4 to read as follows:
§40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
(a) Applicability. This section applies to all documents required by this part, except for the CCF. An electronic CCF may be used only if it has been approved for use by the Department of Health and Human Services and is used in compliance with §40.40(c)(5).
(b) Electronic records or documents. Any person or entity required to generate, maintain, or exchange and/or transmit documents to satisfy requirements in this part may use electronic methods to satisfy those requirements.
(c) Electronic signatures. (1) Any person or entity required to sign or certify a document to satisfy the requirements of this part may use an electronic signature, as defined in §40.3.
(2) Any available technology may be used that satisfies the requirements of an electronic signature as defined in §40.3.
(d) Electronic document requirements. Any person or entity may use documents signed, certified, generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods, as long as the documents accurately reflect the information otherwise required to be contained in them.
(1) Records, documents, or signatures generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods satisfy the requirements of this section if they are capable of being retained, are used for the purpose for which they were created, and can be accurately reproduced within required timeframes for reference by any party entitled to access.
(2) Records or documents generated electronically satisfy the requirements of this section if they include proof of consent to use electronically generated records or documents, as required by 15 U.S.C. 7001(c).
(e) Confidentiality and security. When using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form to include protecting against destruction, deterioration, and data corruption.
4. In §40.25, revise paragraph (g) to read as follows:
§40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
* * * * *
(g) The release of information under this section must be in any written form that ensures confidentiality. As the previous employer, you must maintain a written record of the information released, including the date, the party to whom it was released, and a summary of the information provided.
* * * * *
5. In §40.79, revise paragraph (a)(9) to read as follows:
§40.79 How is the collection process completed?
(a) * * *
(9) Send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. Keep Copy 3 for at least 30 days, unless otherwise specified by applicable DOT agency regulations.
* * * * *
6. In §40.97, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text, (c)(1) introductory text, and (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40. 97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
* * * * *
(c) As a laboratory, you must report laboratory results directly, and only, to the MRO at his or her place of business. You must not report results to or through the DER or a service agent ( e.g., C/TPA).
(1) Negative results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF which has been signed by the certifying scientist, or you may provide the laboratory results report electronically.
* * * * *
(2) Non-negative and rejected for testing results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF that has been signed by the certifying scientist. In addition, you may provide the laboratory results report following the format and procedures set forth in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
* * * * *
7. In §40.111, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.111 When must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
* * * * *
(b) When the employer requests a summary in response to an inspection, audit, or review by a DOT agency, you must provide it unless the employer had fewer than five aggregate test results. In that case, you must send the employer a report indicating that not enough testing was conducted to warrant a summary.
* * * * *
8. In §40.127, revise paragraph (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF or the electronic laboratory results report that conveys the negative laboratory test result.
* * * * *
9. In §40.129, revise paragraphs (b) introductory text and (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative drug test results?
* * * * *
(b) Before you report a verified negative, positive, test cancelled, refusal to test because of adulteration or substitution, you must have in your possession the following documents:
* * * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF, containing the certifying scientist's signature.
* * * * *
10. In §40.163, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text and (e) to read as follows:
§40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
* * * * *
(c) If you do not report test results using Copy 2 of the CCF for the purposes of this section, you must provide a written report for each test result. This report must, as a minimum, include the following information:
* * * * *
(e) You must retain a signed or stamped and dated copy of Copy 2 of the CCF in your records. If you do not use Copy 2 for reporting results, you must maintain a copy of the signed or stamped and dated written report in addition to the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2. If you use the electronic data file to report negatives, you must maintain a retrievable copy of that report in a format suitable for inspection and auditing by a DOT representative.
* * * * *
11. In §40.167, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.167 How are MRO reports of drug test results transmitted to the employer?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(1) You must transmit a legible image or copy of either the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2 or the written report (see §40.163(b) and (c)).
* * * * *
12. In §40.185, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.185 What and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
* * * * *
(b) You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF, which has been signed by the certifying scientist.
* * * * *
13. In §40.187, revise paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) to read as follows:
§40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(iv) * * *
(C) As the laboratory that tests the primary specimen to reconfirm the presence of the adulterant found in the split specimen and/or to determine that the primary specimen meets appropriate substitution criteria, report your result to the MRO using a copy of Copy 1 of the CCF.
* * * * *
14. In §40.191, revise paragraph (d) introductory text to read as follows:
§40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(d) As a collector or an MRO, when an employee refuses to participate in the part of the testing process in which you are involved, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the CCF (including, in the case of the collector, printing the employee's name on Copy 2 of the CCF), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures that the refusal notification is immediately received. As a referral physician ( e.g., physician evaluating a “shy bladder” condition or a claim of a legitimate medical explanation in a validity testing situation), you must notify the MRO, who in turn will notify the DER.
* * * * *
15. In §40.193, revise paragraph (b)(3) to read as follows:
§40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of specimen for a drug test?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(3) As the collector, you must send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or the next business day.
* * * * *
16. In §40.205, revise paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) to read as follows:
§40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(1) If the problem resulted from the omission of required information, you must, as the person responsible for providing that information, supply in writing the missing information and a statement that it is true and accurate. For example, suppose you are a collector, and you forgot to make a notation on the “Remarks” line of the CCF that the employee did not sign the certification. You would, when the problem is called to your attention, supply a signed statement that the employee failed or refused to sign the certification and that your statement is true and accurate. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-Federal form or an expired Federal form, you must provide a signed statement ( i.e., a memorandum for the record). It must state that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT drug test, and that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control. The statement must also list the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-Federal forms or expired Federal forms for DOT tests. For this flaw to be corrected, the test of the specimen must have occurred at an HHS-certified laboratory where it was tested consistent with the requirements of this part. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
17. In §40.225, revise paragraph (a) and add paragraphs (d) and (e) to read as follows:
§40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
(a) The DOT Alcohol Testing Form (ATF) must be used for every DOT alcohol test. The ATF must be a three-part carbonless manifold form or an electronic ATF that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. The ATF is found in appendix G to this part. You may view this form on the ODAPC website ( https://www.transportation.gov/odapc ).
* * * * *
(d) As an employer, you may use an electronic ATF that meets the following requirements:
(1) The electronic ATF must be identical in form and content to the ATF found in appendix G to this part.
(2) The electronic ATF must meet the requirements of §40.4(d).
(3) The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT.
(4) If an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results (see §40.253(g)), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout.
(e) As an employer, BAT, or STT using an electronic ATF, you must establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form.
18. In §40.255, revise paragraph (a)(5)(i) to read as follows:
§40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(i) You may transmit the results using Copy 1 of the ATF, in person, by telephone, or by electronic means. In any case, you must immediately notify the DER of any result of 0.02 or greater by any means that ensures the result is immediately received by the DER. You must not transmit these results through C/TPAs or other service agents.
* * * * *
19. In §40.261, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(c)(1) As a BAT or an STT, or as the physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation, when an employee refuses to test as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the ATF (or in a separate document which you cause to be attached to the form), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. You must make this notification directly to the DER (not using a C/TPA as an intermediary).
* * * * *
20. In §40.271, revise paragraph (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-DOT form, you must, as the person responsible for the use of the incorrect form, certify in writing that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT alcohol test. You must also provide a signed statement that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control, and the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-DOT forms for DOT tests. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
21. In §40.365, revise paragraphs (b)(13) and (14) and add paragraph (b)(15) to read as follows:
§40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(13) For any service agent, directing or recommending that an employer fail or refuse to implement any provision of this part;
(14) With respect to noncompliance with a DOT agency regulation, conduct that affects important provisions of Department-wide concern ( e.g., failure to properly conduct the selection process for random testing); or
(15) For a service agent, failing to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system. PART 199—DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING
22. The authority citation for part 199 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 5103, 60102, 60104, 60108, 60117, and 60118; 49 CFR 1.53.
23. In §199.3:
a. Designate the introductory text as paragraph (b); and
b. Add paragraph (a).
The addition reads as follows:
§199.3 Definitions.
(a) Terms used in this part have the same meaning as in 49 CFR 40.3.
* * * * *
24. Add §199.4 to read as follows:
§199.4 Electronic documents, records, and signatures.
Electronic documents, records, and signatures may be used to comply with this part provided they meet the requirements specified in 49 CFR part 40.
25. In §199.117, revise paragraph (a) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.117 Recordkeeping.
(a) Each operator shall keep the records in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for the periods specified by this section or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater; and will permit access to the records as provided by §190.203.
* * * * *
26. In §199.119, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.119 Reporting of anti-drug testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual Management Information System (MIS) report to PHMSA of its anti-drug testing using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
27. In §199.227, revise paragraph (b) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.227 Retention of records.
* * * * *
(b) Period of retention. Each operator shall maintain the records in accordance with the following schedule or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater:
* * * * *
28. In §199.229, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.229 Reporting of alcohol testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual MIS report to PHMSA of its alcohol testing results using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
Signed on: Thursday, October 3, 2024.
Pete Buttigieg,
Secretary of Transportation.
[FR Doc. 2024-23427 Filed 10-11-24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P
NewsFleet SafetyPipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTOffice of the Secretary of TransportationHazmat SafetyRulemakingFocus AreaProposed RuleEnglishTransportationUSA
89 FR 82957 Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
2024-10-15T05:00:00Z
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Office of the Secretary
49 CFR Part 40
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
49 CFR Part 199
[Docket DOT-OST-2022-0027]
RIN 2105-AF01
Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
AGENCY: Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
SUMMARY: The Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) proposes to amend its regulations for conducting workplace drug and alcohol testing for the federally regulated transportation industry to allow, but not require, electronic signatures on documents required to be created and utilized under the regulations, the use of electronic versions of forms, and the electronic storage of forms and data. The regulatory changes would apply to DOT-regulated employers and their contractors (“service agents”) who administer their DOT-regulated drug and alcohol testing programs. Currently, employers and their service agents must use, sign and store paper documents exclusively, unless the employer is utilizing a laboratory's electronic Federal Drug Testing Custody and Control Form (electronic CCF) system that has been approved by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). DOT is required by statute to amend its regulations to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms. This rulemaking also responds to an April 2, 2020, petition for rulemaking from DISA Global Solutions, Inc. (DISA), requesting that DOT regulations be amended to allow the use of an electronic version of the alcohol testing form (ATF) for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. The proposed regulatory amendments are expected to provide additional flexibility and reduced costs for the industry while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the drug and alcohol testing regulations. In addition, DOT proposes to amend the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) regulation for conformity and to make other miscellaneous technical changes and corrections.
DATES: Comments on this NPRM must be received on or before December 16, 2024.
ADDRESSES: You may submit comments identified by Docket Number DOT-OST-2022-0027 using any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
• Mail: Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
• Hand Delivery or Courier: West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION section for instructions on submitting comments, including collection of information comments for the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Mike Huntley, Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590; telephone number 202-366-3784; ODAPCwebmail@dot.gov. If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
This NPRM is organized as follows:
I. Executive Summary
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
C. Privacy Act
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
IV. Background
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
VIII. Electronic ATF
IX. Section-by-Section Analysis
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
I. Executive Summary
Purpose and Summary of the Major Provisions
This proposed rule would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures and expand businesses' and individuals' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the Department's drug and alcohol testing regulation, 49 CFR part 40, “Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs” (part 40). Businesses and individuals subject to part 40 would continue to have the choice to use paper documents and traditional “wet” signatures. This proposed rule would also modify references to recordkeeping and reporting methods throughout part 40 to make them technologically neutral.
This proposed rulemaking responds to a statutory mandate set forth in section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271 (see 49 U.S.C. 322 note). The proposed rulemaking would take action consistent with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA) (division C, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, Pub. L. 105-277) and the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN) (Pub. L. 106-229) with regard to DOT's part 40 regulations.
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this NPRM (Docket No. DOT-OST-2022-0027), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. The Office of the Secretary (OST) recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in a cover letter or an email so that OST can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document, click on this NPRM, click “Comment,” and type your comment into the text box on the following screen.
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8 1/2 by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit comments by mail and would like to know that they reached the facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope.
OST will consider all comments and material received during the comment period in determining how to proceed with any final rule.
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as available in the docket, go to https://www.regulations.gov. Insert the docket number, DOT-OST-2022-0027, in the keyword box, and click “Search.” Next, click the “Open Docket Folder” button and choose the document to review. If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting the Docket Management Facility in Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting the Docket Management Facility.
C. Privacy Act
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to www.regulations.gov, as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices under the heading of “Department-Wide System of Records Notices”.
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority enacted in the Omnibus Transportation Employee Testing Act of 1991 (OTETA) (Pub. L. 102-143, tit. V, 105 Stat. 952) and codified at 49 U.S.C. 45102 (aviation), 49 U.S.C. 20140 (rail), 49 U.S.C. 31306 (motor carrier), and 49 U.S.C. 5331 (public transportation), as well as the Department's authority in 49 U.S.C. 322 and the PHMSA authorities specified in the proposed regulatory text for this action.
According to Public Law 115-271, the Secretary of Transportation is required to “issue a final rule revising part 40 of title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms.” (49 U.S.C. 322 note) The statute set the deadline for this action as not later than 18 months after HHS establishes a deadline for a certified laboratory to request approval for fully electronic CCFs ( Id. ) On April 7, 2022, HHS set that deadline as August 31, 2023 (87 FR 20528). HHS has extended the deadline to August 31, 2026, to enable sufficient time for all HHS-certified laboratories to identify and contract with an electronic CCF supplier or to develop an electronic CCF. The deadline for DOT's regulatory amendments would therefore be February 29, 2028.
There are two additional Federal statutes relevant to the implementation of electronic document and signature requirements.
The Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA), codified at 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 1 was enacted to improve customer service and governmental efficiency through the use of information technology. The GPEA defines an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (a) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (b) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. Id. It also requires OMB to ensure Federal agencies provide for: (a) the option of maintaining, submitting; or disclosing information electronically, when practicable; and (b) the use and acceptance of electronic signatures when practicable. The GPEA states that electronic records submitted pursuant to procedures developed under title XVII for the submission of records to Federal agencies and electronic signatures used in accordance with those procedures shall not be denied legal effect, validity, or enforceability merely because they are in electronic form. Id.
1 Division C, title XVII (sec. 1701-1710) of Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681-749, enacted on October 21, 1998.
The Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN), codified at 15 U.S.C. 7001-7031, 2 was designed to promote the use of electronic contract formation, signatures, and recordkeeping in private commerce by establishing legal equivalence between traditional paper-based methods and electronic methods. The E-SIGN Act allows the use of electronic records to satisfy any statute, regulation, or rule of law requiring that such information be provided in writing if the consumer has affirmatively consented to such use and has not withdrawn consent. Specifically, the statute establishes the legal equivalence of the following types of documents with respect to any transaction in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, whether in traditional paper or electronic form: (a) contracts, (b) signatures, and (c) other records (15 U.S.C. 7001(a)(1)).
2 Public Law 106-229, 114 Stat. 464, enacted on June 30, 2000.
IV. Background
The Department's drug and alcohol testing regulations were promulgated at a time when the ability to sign and retain official records electronically—now commonplace in many business segments—was not available. Over the course of several years, we have adopted measures that have reduced the paper documentation associated with the drug and alcohol testing program without compromising the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program. In 2003, we standardized the form for employers to report their Management Information System (MIS) aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected. 3 When creating a ONE-DOT MIS Form, we then authorized employers to submit a single standardized form via a web portal. In 2015, we issued a final rule to allow employers, collectors, laboratories, and medical review officers (MROs) to use the electronic version of the Federal Drug Testing CCF in the DOT-regulated drug testing program. 4 That final rule also incorporated into the regulations the requirement to establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons when using the electronic CCF. We also included language protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form when using the electronic CCF.
3 68 FR 43946 (July 25, 2003).
4 80 FR 19551 (Apr. 13, 2015).
Consistent with the statutory mandate in 49 U.S.C. 322 note, we propose amendments to part 40 to permit the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for drug and alcohol testing records throughout the regulation, including the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. We emphasize that electronic signatures, forms, and records would not be required; we would continue to allow paper, or hard-copy use with traditional “wet signatures.”
These proposed amendments would establish parity between paper and electronic collection and submission of information required under our regulations (and remain compatible with applicable OMB guidance on implementing electronic signatures 5 ) by allowing further use of electronic means and methods to comply with part 40 requirements. Many employers and their service agents have already instituted the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for the non-DOT regulated testing that they conduct. DOT supports this transition to a paperless system and is committed to ensuring that the movement to a partially or fully electronic part 40 is done to maximize program efficiencies and reduce costs, while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program.
5https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/2000-M-00-15-OMB-Guidance-on-Implementing-the-Electronic-Signatures-in-Global-and-National-Commerce-Act.pdf.
Electronic documents would have a high degree of forensic defensibility as long as any changes made to the document are in the document's electronic footprint, which shows when the document or signature, as applicable, was created; when, and if, changes were made; who made the changes; and when, as applicable, a document was transmitted to and received by the receiving entity. The use of electronic forms and signatures in part 40 would help DOT-regulated employers and their service agents improve their workflow efficiency through faster turnaround times for required documents. Cost savings would result through reduced printing and delivery/shipping costs, and expedited transmission of information allowing for more timely decisions. We believe this proposed rule, if adopted, would also mitigate the longstanding problems ( e.g., delays in processing times of test results, cancelling of test results, etc.) associated with illegible and lost copies of paper documents.
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
On August 5, 2022, we published an ANPRM requesting public comment on how part 40 could be amended, as required by the statute, to allow electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping (87 FR 47951). We requested information from DOT-regulated employers and their service agents regarding if and how they are already handling electronic signatures, records transmission, and records storage in their non-DOT testing programs. In addition, we requested comments and information on appropriate performance standards, and on whether particular methods or performance standards have been successful or unsuccessful. We also asked a number of general questions on the potential advantages, risks, ramifications, and required safeguards associated with the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records in the DOT drug and alcohol testing program. We asked questions about specific sections of part 40 that we anticipated would be affected by prospective changes to implement electronic signatures, forms, and records. Finally, we asked a number of questions regarding the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol tests.
We received 72 comments in response to the ANPRM, including comments from individuals, testing laboratories, MROs, and MRO organizations, substance abuse professionals (SAP) and SAP organizations, and various associations representing DOT-regulated transportation workers subject to mandatory drug and alcohol testing under part 40.
A few individuals expressed opposition to the adoption of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, citing concerns about the need for the rulemaking, risk to personal information from hackers or mismanaged electronic processes and procedures, and misuse of electronic forms and signatures. To meet our statutory mandate and in consideration of concerns about safeguarding personal information and appropriate use of the information in developing the NPRM, DOT proposes to require security measures for electronic forms and signatures used under part 40 that are the same as those currently in place for the electronic CCF specified in 49 CFR 40.40(c)(5).
Most commenters were supportive of changes to amend part 40 that would permit, but not require, the use of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping. Commenters supporting revisions to part 40 noted that electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping are used in virtually every industry today—including but not limited to the banking, insurance, medical, and legal industries. Commenters supported the use of performance standards instead of technology-specific standards to ensure that, once established, standards do not become obsolete given the rapidly evolving nature of information technology standards and practices. Commenters stated that allowing electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping would make the drug testing process much more efficient and would result in cost savings. Commenters also stated that it would be safer to store records electronically since records could be backed-up, secured, and protected from tampering and unauthorized access and use.
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
In developing this NPRM, we looked to a rule promulgated by DOT's FMCSA that permits the use of electronic methods to generate, certify, sign, maintain, or exchange records so long as the documents accurately reflect the required information and can be used for their intended purpose. (83 FR 16210, Apr. 16, 2018) The rule applies to documents that FMCSA requires entities or individuals to retain. FMCSA permits, but does not require, anyone to satisfy FMCSA requirements by using electronic methods to generate, maintain, or exchange documents. The substance of the document must otherwise comply with applicable Federal laws and FMCSA rules. FMCSA also permits, but does not require, anyone required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures, defined, as in the GPEA, as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (1) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (2) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. FMCSA allows for the use any available technology for electronic signatures, so long as the signature otherwise complies with FMCSA's requirements.
FMCSA adopted broad performance standards for electronic documents and signatures—as specified in GPEA and E-SIGN—rather than detailed, technology specific standards that would likely become obsolete with inevitable changes in information technology standards and practices. FMCSA's April 2018 rule has been in effect for more than five years, and the definitions and requirements established in that rule have stood the test of time despite the many changes that have occurred with respect to electronic documents and signatures. We are unaware of any FMCSA-regulated entities that have reported issues to FMCSA regarding the use of electronic documents or signatures to meet the requirements of the FMCSRs since the rule became effective in 2018.
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
In this NPRM, we propose to permit but not require electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping in part 40. Additionally, we propose a performance standard approach as opposed to establishing technology-specific standards. Where it is possible to do so, establishing the same or substantively similar regulatory requirements for common issues across DOT modal agencies—such as the use of electronic documents and signatures—helps the Department maintain a consistent regulatory approach for those common issues.
There are currently more than 60 references to the term “written” in part 40, and more than 20 additional references to the term “in writing.” We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing” in part 40, to eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic documentation and establish technological neutrality throughout the entirety of part 40.
FMCSA's rule does not apply to documents that individuals or entities are required to file directly with FMCSA. In its April 2018 final rule, FMCSA explained that while industry could use electronic signatures and submit information directly to the FMCSA in certain situations, 6 adapting all FMCSA systems to allow for use of electronic signatures and submissions would significantly delay the implementation of the rule for use by third parties as it would require FMCSA to develop and implement technology systems to allow for direct submission to FMCSA from regulated parties. FMCSA noted that development of such systems could take several years, and therefore saw no reason to make private parties' use of electronic signatures and records retention contingent upon FMCSA's ability to receive submissions electronically because doing so would delay potential benefits to be gained by third parties.
6 As an example, Certified Medical Examiners may use electronic signatures, if they choose to do so, to sign medical forms, certificates, and a new driver medication report. If FMCSA requests these forms, they are uploaded in portable document format (PDF) to the Medical Examiner's account associated with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners for FMCSA to access.
In contrast to FMCSA's regulations, part 40 does not require entities or individuals to submit documents directly to the Department except for MIS aggregate drug and alcohol testing data that employers subject to DOT or U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) drug and alcohol testing regulations must submit annually. Each of the various documents required and used as part of the DOT drug and alcohol testing program under part 40 ( e.g., employee drug and alcohol testing records, MRO reports and records, SAP reports and records) are documents that are created by, exchanged between, and maintained by a person or entity involved in the testing process—but are not required to be submitted directly to DOT.
As noted earlier, and specifically with respect to the required MIS data, we standardized the form for employers to report their aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected, more than 20 years ago. At that time, we authorized employers to submit the ONE-DOT MIS form via a web portal. Today, the Federal Aviation Administration, FMCSA, Federal Railroad Administration, and Federal Transit Administration permit employers to submit that same drug and alcohol testing data via the internet, and PHMSA requires that the data be submitted electronically. If employers submit the data electronically via the internet, they are not required to submit a hard copy. DOT recommends that employers have a copy of their data available (either hard copy or in electronic format) in the event an auditor or inspector requests a copy.
From the above, and because the only documents that part 40 requires to be submitted directly to the Department are already permitted to be, and in some cases required to be, submitted electronically, there is no need for us to limit the applicability of our proposal as FMCSA did in its 2018 final rule.
Several commenters noted that they already use electronic signatures and documents for their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing program, and in some cases, have done so for many years. In doing so, these commenters have had to establish appropriate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons, including protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The same general requirements were added to the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved the use of the electronic CCF for use in DOT drug testing in 2015, 7 and we propose the same requirements in this NPRM for the use of electronic signatures, documents, and recordkeeping throughout the entirety of part 40.
7 The 2015 revisions amended then §40.45(c)(5), which was redesignated as §40.40(c)(5) in the May 2023 final rule to include oral fluid testing in the DOT drug testing program (88 FR 27596, May 2, 2023).
Ensuring that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons is an important element of part 40's protections for employees that are subject to DOT's drug and alcohol testing rules. We believe that the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system should constitute the basis for the Department to start a public interest exclusion (PIE) proceeding, and propose to add this to the list of examples provided in §40.365(b).
Throughout part 40, information and documents are required to be transmitted and/or communicated between service agents ( e.g., collectors, screening test technicians (STTs) and breath alcohol technicians (BATs), laboratories, MROs, SAPs, and consortium/third party administrators (C/TPAs)), employers, and employees). Although part 40 does not currently require the party receiving these communications and/or documents to affirmatively confirm receipt of such from the sender, in some instances, regardless of whether the document is electronic or a hard copy, we believe that it may be important for the receiving party to verify that those required communications and/or documents were received.
For example, under §40.25, an employer intending to use an employee to perform safety-sensitive functions must, after obtaining an employee's written consent, request information about the employee's drug and alcohol testing record from previous DOT-regulated employers. After receiving a copy of the employee's written consent, the previous employer must immediately provide the requested information to the employer making the inquiry. If an employer is subsequently investigated/audited by the appropriate DOT mode, it may be beneficial for both the gaining employer and the previous employer to be able to affirmatively demonstrate that the employee's written consent and previous testing record were sent and received as required.
Sections 40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) require a collector or MRO (for drug tests) or a BAT, STT, or a physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation (for alcohol tests), respectively, to—when an employee refuses to participate in a part of the testing process—terminate the testing process, document the refusal, and immediately and directly notify the employer's designated employer representative (DER) by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. Because this notification of a refusal to an employer is of an urgent nature, it may be advisable to require the DER to affirmatively confirm receipt of the required notification from the collector, MRO, BAT, STT, or physician. For example, §§40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) could be amended to read “. . . immediately notify the DER by any means and ensure that the refusal notification is immediately received”.
While we are not proposing new requirements in this NPRM regarding confirmation of receipt in the sections discussed above (or in other part 40 requirements), we seek comment regarding whether it may be beneficial or advisable to do so, and if so, for which specific sections of part 40.
VIII. Electronic ATF
The ATF has been in use in the DOT alcohol testing program since 1994 (see 59 FR 7349, Feb. 15, 1994). The ATF must be used to document every DOT alcohol test. DOT regulations at 49 CFR 40.225 set forth the requirements for use of the form, and 49 CFR part 40, appendix G, contains a facsimile (reference copy) of the form. The ATF is a three-part carbonless manifold form used by DOT-regulated employers to document the testing event when testing employees subject to DOT alcohol testing. When the employee is tested, both the employee and the STT and/or the BAT will complete the ATF in various sections. The STT/BAT documents the result(s) by either writing in the screening result or attaching the screening and/or confirmation result printed by the evidential breath testing devices (EBT) onto the ATF, and then sends Copy 1 to the employer, provides Copy 2 to the employee, and retains Copy 3 for their records.
On April 2, 2020, DISA petitioned the Department to amend part 40 to allow for the use of an electronic version of the ATF for DOT mandated alcohol testing. In support of its petition, DISA stated that “The requested amendment to 49 CFR part 40 will enable a parallel process for the documentation of DOT-mandated alcohol tests aligned with the similarly situated amendment previously approved for drug testing.” DISA believes that allowing the use of an electronic ATF will result in several benefits to the industry, including “increased efficiency, security and accuracy in documentation of DOT alcohol tests; paperwork reduction; improved process for conducting a DOT alcohol test in conjunction with a DOT drug test when an electronic version of the federal CCF is used for the drug test; reduction of errors and omissions in the completion of the ATF; and improved efficiency and efficacy in the transmission and record retention of alcohol test results.”
DISA noted that non-DOT workplace breath alcohol testing has been conducted using electronic versions of an alcohol testing form that mirrors the DOT ATF for more than five years. Based on experience using those electronic forms for non-DOT testing, DISA cites improved efficiency and accuracy of documentation because: (1) employer and employee information is entered via computer and thus not dependent on reading and deciphering hand-written entries, (2) date time stamps of the testing are automated and not subject to fluctuation or error, (3) transmission of documentation on completed tests is more secure using databases accessed only via protected password and personal identification number (PIN) to authorized employers or their designated agents, and (4) transmission of test result information is faster and more secure than existing transmission options of scanning and emailing attachments or facsimile.
DISA also noted that permitting use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing “will substantially reduce cost, by eliminating the requirement for the printing and distribution of carbonless three-ply paper ATFs. The proposed electronic ATF option would still provide for printed paper images to be made available to the employee, the employer, and the alcohol technician, [but] eliminates the requirement for the more expensive carbonless 3 ply paper ATF.”
For the reasons described by DISA in its petition, and recognizing that significant benefits and cost reductions have resulted from use of the electronic CCF for drug testing, we believe that it is likewise appropriate to permit the use of electronic ATFs in part 40 for DOT-regulated testing. Permitting but not requiring the use of an electronic ATF would be consistent with our proposal to permit, but not require, the use of electronic documents and signatures throughout the entirety of part 40 as discussed above. As several commenters noted, the use of an electronic ATF has been used in non-DOT testing for 5-10 years, and the same developers of the electronic CCFs have developed the electronic ATFs. Any electronic ATF used under part 40 for DOT-regulated employees would have to be identical in form and content to the DOT ATF in appendix I to part 40. 8 Just as we imposed general confidentiality and security requirements when electronic CCFs were permitted to be used under part 40, we believe that it is necessary to include the same general requirements relating to the use of electronic ATFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
8 The ATF form was redesignated from appendix G to appendix I as part of the rulemaking process culminating in the May 2023 final rule. During that process, the form was reviewed by the public and DOT received no comment on the form.
Manufacturers of EBTs and alcohol screening devices (ASD) used in DOT alcohol tests must obtain approval from the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) and then be listed on the Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance's (ODAPC) website before those devices may be used in DOT alcohol testing.
IX. PHMSA Proposed Changes
PHMSA is proposing to amend §§199.3, 199.117, and 199.227 and to add §199.4 to conform to the proposed changes in part 40 and to clarify that the proposed changes in part 40 apply to part 199. These changes will help the readers of part 199 find the applicable regulations in part 40 with regards to the definition of terms and record keeping requirements. We also propose to amend §§199.119 and 199.229 by changing the reference of “appendix H” to “appendix J” to conform to the amendment of part 40 published on May 2, 2023.
X. Section-by-Section Analysis
Section 40.3 What do the terms used in this regulation mean?
We propose to add a definition of “electronic signature.” The rule would define an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 112 Stat. 2681-749). Including the specific cross reference to GPEA would ensure that regulated entities know that we are using GPEA's performance standard for allowing use of electronic signatures.
We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing.” The rule would define written or in writing as printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of 49 CFR 40.4. This definition would eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic methods of communication/documentation.
Section 40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
We propose to add a new §40.4 that would prescribe the requirements pertaining to electronic documents and signatures throughout part 40.
Paragraph (a) would specify that §40.4 would apply to all documents required by part 40, except for the CCF, as an electronic CCF may only be used when approved by HHS and in compliance with §40.40(c)(5). As background, before an HHS-certified laboratory can use a Federal electronic CCF for regulated specimens, the test facility must submit a detailed plan and proposed standard operating procedures for the electronic CCF system for HHS review and approval through the National Laboratory Certification Program. At the current time, several HHS-certified laboratories have received approval to use a combination electronic/paper CCF, while four laboratories have received approval to use a fully electronic CCF. As noted earlier, and in a separate section of the SUPPORT Act, HHS was required to set a deadline for certified laboratories to request approval for use of fully electronic CCFs. That deadline is now August 31, 2026.
Paragraph (b) would permit, but not require, any person or entity to use electronic methods to comply with any provision in part 40 that requires a document to be signed, certified, generated, maintained, or transmitted between parties. It would apply to all forms of written documentation, including forms, records, notations, and other documents. The substance of the document would otherwise have to comply with part 40 requirements. This would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures, greatly expanding interested parties' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (c) would permit, but not require, any entity required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures as defined in §40.3. The rule specifies that a person may use any available technology so long as the signature otherwise complies with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (d) would establish the minimum requirements for electronic documents and signatures. Any electronic document or signature would be considered the legal equivalent of a paper document or signature if it is the functional equivalent with respect to integrity, accuracy, and accessibility. In other words, the electronic documents or signatures need to accurately and reliably reflect the information in the record. They must remain accessible in a form that could be accurately viewed or reproduced according to Agency rules. As with any documents, paper or electronic, documents that are not legible—for any reason—do not satisfy the Department's requirements.
Electronic documents are not to be considered the legal equivalent of traditional paper documents if they (1) are not capable of being retained, (2) are not used for the purpose for which they were created, or (3) cannot be accurately reproduced for reference by any entity entitled to access by law, for the period of time required by the Department's recordkeeping requirements.
Paragraph (d) would also require that any electronically signed documents must incorporate or otherwise include evidence that both parties to the document have consented to the use of electronic signatures, as required by the E-SIGN Act (15 U.S.C. 7001(c)).
Paragraph (e) would require that when using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The proposed requirements are analogous to those established in the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved use of the electronic CCF in part 40.
Section 40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
Currently, paragraph (g) makes it clear that the release of information under this section must be in any written form, and the parenthetical clarifies that this can be paper-based (written, fax) or electronic (email). Under the proposed definition of “written or in writing,” there is no distinction between paper-based and electronic communications. Because “written or in writing” would mean either paper or electronic communications, we propose to remove parenthetical reference to “fax, email, letter” to eliminate redundancy and confusion. All parties can conduct their business using either paper or electronic means of documentation and communication.
Section 40.79 How is the collection process completed?
Currently, paragraph (a)(9) of this section requires the collector to “fax or otherwise transmit” Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. We propose to amend this section by removing reference to the methods of transmitting receipts, so parties can choose their own medium of communication.
Section 40.97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.111 When and how must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to amend paragraph (b) of this section to remove the references to the methods of transmitting the summary or report required by this section. Because the summary or report can be transmitted via hard copy or electronically, there is no need to specify how it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
Section 40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to remove the reference to a “letter” in paragraph (c) of this section. In paragraph (e) of this section, we propose to replace the term “letter” with “written report” for consistency with paragraph (c).
Section 40.167 How are MRO reports of drug results transmitted to the employer?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
Section 40.185 Through what methods and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (b) of this section. In addition, because Copy 1 of the CCF can be transmitted in writing or electronically, there is no need to specify the methods through which it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.
Section 40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (d) of this section as means of transmitting notification that an employee has refused to participate in part of the testing process from the collector or MRO to the DER.
Section 40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of urine for a drug test?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “send or fax” as the means for the collector to transmit copies of the CCF to the MRO and the DER in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
Section 40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a collector, laboratory, MRO, employer, or other person to supply signed statements regarding correctable problems in a drug test in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
We propose to amend this section to permit, but not require, the use of an electronic version of the DOT ATF that is identical in form and content to the form provided in appendix I to part 40. The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT, and if an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results pursuant to §40.253(g), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout. This section would also be amended to specify the same general confidentiality and security measures in §40.45 relating to electronic CCFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
Section 40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section as means of transmitting results of the alcohol confirmation test from the BAT to the DER. Similarly, there is no need to specify that Copy 1 of the ATF may be transmitted “in person, by telephone, or by electronic means.”
Section 40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (c) of this section as means of transmitting a refusal notification from a BAT, STT, or referral physician to the DER.
Section 40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a STT, BAT, employer, or other service agent to supply a signed statement regarding correctable flaws in an alcohol test in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
We propose to amend this section by adding a new paragraph (b)(15) that would identify the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system as appropriate grounds for starting a PIE proceeding.
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 (Regulatory Planning and Review)
The Secretary has examined the impact of the proposed part 40 amendments under Executive Order 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”), as supplemented by Executive Order 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) and amended by Executive Order 14094 (“Modernizing Regulatory Review”), which directs Federal agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity).
According to these Executive orders, a regulatory action is “significant” if it meets any one of a number of specified conditions, including having an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more, as adjusted every three years by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA); adversely affecting in a material way a sector of the economy, competition, or jobs; or if it raises novel legal or policy issues. The proposed amendments, which would allow the use of electronic documents and signatures, do not meet the Executive order's criteria for being a significant rule. Consequently, OMB has determined that the rulemaking action is not significant under the Executive order.
The proposed rule responds to the statutory mandate set forth in Section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271. The proposed rule would not impose new requirements on the industry; rather, it would simply permit—but not require—regulated entities to use electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, and remove outdated and obsolete references in the regulatory text. The proposed rule would not impose new costs on the industry because regulated entities would be allowed to choose to continue to use paper-based documents as they had before. The benefits of the rule would stem from savings in paper and printing expense and other efficiency gains. Examples of documents affected by this rule include, but are not limited to, records of a prospective employee's drug and alcohol testing history that employers must obtain prior to permitting that employee to perform safety-sensitive duties, MRO records and reports, SAP records and reports, and ATFs. While there is no way to estimate how many entities or individuals would change their practices given the new options, or how many documents would be affected, several commenters to the ANPRM stated that they have been using electronic documents and signatures in their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing programs for many years. While neither the benefits nor the costs of this rule can be reliably estimated, we expect this proposed rule to provide flexibility to the industry. Under this proposed rule, regulated entities would have the flexibility to conduct business using either electronic or traditional paper-based methods. We also expect regulated entities to choose technologies that would maximize benefits in accordance with their individual needs and circumstances.
Regulatory Flexibility Act and Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA)
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq. ) requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of their regulatory actions on small businesses and other small entities and minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with a population of less than 50,000. For this rulemaking, potentially affected small entities include drug testing companies (U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Sector 54 (Professional, Scientific and Technical Services), Code 541380 (Testing Laboratories and Services)) as well as DOT-regulated entities (SBA NAICS Sectors 48-49 (Transportation and Warehousing)).
The Department does not expect that the proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed rule, if adopted, would increase flexibility for all small-entity transportation employers and their service agents by allowing them to use electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping to meet part 40 requirements. Use of electronic documents, electronic signatures, and electronic recordkeeping would be voluntary for affected small entities, which will provide added flexibility to these entities in meeting the part 40 requirements. For these reasons, and as explained in more detail in the preamble to this proposed rule, the Secretary certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Consequently, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required for this proposed rule.
Unfunded Mandates
The Secretary has examined the impact of the final rule under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). This NPRM does not trigger the requirement for a written statement under sec. 202(a) of the UMRA because this rulemaking does not impose a mandate that results in an expenditure of $100 million (adjusted annually for inflation) or more by either State, local, and tribal governments in the aggregate or by the private sector in any one year. In fact, by providing an alternative to traditional paper-based records, the proposed rule would be expected to reduce costs to regulated parties, including State and local entities ( e.g., public transit authorities, and public works departments) whose employees are subject to testing and that choose to use electronic documents as opposed to paper-based documents.
Environmental Impact
The DOT has analyzed the environmental impacts of this action pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. ) and has determined that it is categorically excluded pursuant to DOT Order 5610.1C, “Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts” (44 FR 56420, October 1, 1979). Categorical exclusions are actions identified in an agency's NEPA implementing procedures that do not normally have a significant impact on the environment and therefore do not require either an environmental assessment (EA) or environmental impact statement (EIS). This proposed rule would amend the transportation industry drug testing program procedures regulation to permit the use of electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping. This action is covered by the categorical exclusion listed at 23 CFR 771.118(c)(4), “[p]lanning and administrative activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction, such as: . . . promulgation of rules, regulations, directives . . .” The Department does not anticipate any environmental impacts, and there are no extraordinary circumstances present in connection with this rulemaking.
Executive Order 13132: Federalism
The Secretary has analyzed the final rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132: Federalism. Executive Order 13132 requires Federal agencies to carefully examine actions to determine if they contain policies that have federalism implications or that preempt State law. As defined in the order, “policies that have federalism implications” refer to regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
Most of the regulated parties under the Department's drug testing program are private entities. Some regulated entities are public entities ( e.g., transit authorities and public works departments); however, as noted above, this proposal would reduce costs of the Department's drug testing program and provide additional flexibility for regulated parties. Accordingly, the Secretary has determined that the proposed rule, which would allow but not require use of electronic signatures and recordkeeping, does not contain policies that have federalism implications.
Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments
Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 6, 2000) requires Federal agencies to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by tribal officials in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications.” “Policies that have tribal implications” as defined in the Executive order, include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and the Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes.” This proposed rule does not have tribal implications. The proposed rule will also not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175.
Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) requires that DOT consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the PRA. Instead, there would likely be a significant reduction in the burden hours required for information collection 2105-0529, Procedures for Transportation Drug and Alcohol Testing Program, due to the ability to use electronic signatures and forms, and largely due to the ability to use an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing under part 40. We request comments on this issue. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a currently valid OMB control number.
Privacy Act
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received in any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.) For information on DOT's compliance with the Privacy Act, please visit https://www.transportation.gov/privacy.
5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4)
As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this proposed rule can be found at the entry for RIN 2105-AF01 in the Department's Portion of the Unified Agenda of Regulatory and Deregulatory Affairs, available at https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202404&RIN=2105-AF01 .
Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023
In accordance with Compliance with Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 (Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2023, Pub. L. 118-5, div. B, title III) and OMB Memorandum (M-23-21) dated September 1, 2023, the Department has determined that this proposed rule is not subject to the Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 because it will not increase direct spending beyond specified thresholds.
List of Subjects
49 CFR Part 40
Administrative practice and procedures, Alcohol abuse, Alcohol testing, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Laboratories, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
49 CFR Part 199
Alcohol testing, Drug testing, Pipeline safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department proposes to amend 49 CFR parts 40 and 199 as follows:
PART 40—PROCEDURES FOR TRANSPORTATION WORKPLACE DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING PROGRAMS
1. The authority for part 40 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 102, 301, 322, 5331, 20140, 31306, and 54101 et seq.
2. In §40.3, add the definitions of “Electronic signature” and “Written or in writing” in alphabetical order to read as follows:
§40.3 What do the terms used in this part mean?
* * * * *
Electronic signature. A method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 112 Stat. 2681-749, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note).
* * * * *
Written or in writing. Printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of §40.4.
3. Add §40.4 to read as follows:
§40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
(a) Applicability. This section applies to all documents required by this part, except for the CCF. An electronic CCF may be used only if it has been approved for use by the Department of Health and Human Services and is used in compliance with §40.40(c)(5).
(b) Electronic records or documents. Any person or entity required to generate, maintain, or exchange and/or transmit documents to satisfy requirements in this part may use electronic methods to satisfy those requirements.
(c) Electronic signatures. (1) Any person or entity required to sign or certify a document to satisfy the requirements of this part may use an electronic signature, as defined in §40.3.
(2) Any available technology may be used that satisfies the requirements of an electronic signature as defined in §40.3.
(d) Electronic document requirements. Any person or entity may use documents signed, certified, generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods, as long as the documents accurately reflect the information otherwise required to be contained in them.
(1) Records, documents, or signatures generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods satisfy the requirements of this section if they are capable of being retained, are used for the purpose for which they were created, and can be accurately reproduced within required timeframes for reference by any party entitled to access.
(2) Records or documents generated electronically satisfy the requirements of this section if they include proof of consent to use electronically generated records or documents, as required by 15 U.S.C. 7001(c).
(e) Confidentiality and security. When using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form to include protecting against destruction, deterioration, and data corruption.
4. In §40.25, revise paragraph (g) to read as follows:
§40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
* * * * *
(g) The release of information under this section must be in any written form that ensures confidentiality. As the previous employer, you must maintain a written record of the information released, including the date, the party to whom it was released, and a summary of the information provided.
* * * * *
5. In §40.79, revise paragraph (a)(9) to read as follows:
§40.79 How is the collection process completed?
(a) * * *
(9) Send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. Keep Copy 3 for at least 30 days, unless otherwise specified by applicable DOT agency regulations.
* * * * *
6. In §40.97, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text, (c)(1) introductory text, and (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40. 97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
* * * * *
(c) As a laboratory, you must report laboratory results directly, and only, to the MRO at his or her place of business. You must not report results to or through the DER or a service agent ( e.g., C/TPA).
(1) Negative results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF which has been signed by the certifying scientist, or you may provide the laboratory results report electronically.
* * * * *
(2) Non-negative and rejected for testing results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF that has been signed by the certifying scientist. In addition, you may provide the laboratory results report following the format and procedures set forth in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
* * * * *
7. In §40.111, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.111 When must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
* * * * *
(b) When the employer requests a summary in response to an inspection, audit, or review by a DOT agency, you must provide it unless the employer had fewer than five aggregate test results. In that case, you must send the employer a report indicating that not enough testing was conducted to warrant a summary.
* * * * *
8. In §40.127, revise paragraph (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF or the electronic laboratory results report that conveys the negative laboratory test result.
* * * * *
9. In §40.129, revise paragraphs (b) introductory text and (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative drug test results?
* * * * *
(b) Before you report a verified negative, positive, test cancelled, refusal to test because of adulteration or substitution, you must have in your possession the following documents:
* * * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF, containing the certifying scientist's signature.
* * * * *
10. In §40.163, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text and (e) to read as follows:
§40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
* * * * *
(c) If you do not report test results using Copy 2 of the CCF for the purposes of this section, you must provide a written report for each test result. This report must, as a minimum, include the following information:
* * * * *
(e) You must retain a signed or stamped and dated copy of Copy 2 of the CCF in your records. If you do not use Copy 2 for reporting results, you must maintain a copy of the signed or stamped and dated written report in addition to the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2. If you use the electronic data file to report negatives, you must maintain a retrievable copy of that report in a format suitable for inspection and auditing by a DOT representative.
* * * * *
11. In §40.167, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.167 How are MRO reports of drug test results transmitted to the employer?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(1) You must transmit a legible image or copy of either the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2 or the written report (see §40.163(b) and (c)).
* * * * *
12. In §40.185, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.185 What and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
* * * * *
(b) You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF, which has been signed by the certifying scientist.
* * * * *
13. In §40.187, revise paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) to read as follows:
§40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(iv) * * *
(C) As the laboratory that tests the primary specimen to reconfirm the presence of the adulterant found in the split specimen and/or to determine that the primary specimen meets appropriate substitution criteria, report your result to the MRO using a copy of Copy 1 of the CCF.
* * * * *
14. In §40.191, revise paragraph (d) introductory text to read as follows:
§40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(d) As a collector or an MRO, when an employee refuses to participate in the part of the testing process in which you are involved, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the CCF (including, in the case of the collector, printing the employee's name on Copy 2 of the CCF), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures that the refusal notification is immediately received. As a referral physician ( e.g., physician evaluating a “shy bladder” condition or a claim of a legitimate medical explanation in a validity testing situation), you must notify the MRO, who in turn will notify the DER.
* * * * *
15. In §40.193, revise paragraph (b)(3) to read as follows:
§40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of specimen for a drug test?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(3) As the collector, you must send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or the next business day.
* * * * *
16. In §40.205, revise paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) to read as follows:
§40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(1) If the problem resulted from the omission of required information, you must, as the person responsible for providing that information, supply in writing the missing information and a statement that it is true and accurate. For example, suppose you are a collector, and you forgot to make a notation on the “Remarks” line of the CCF that the employee did not sign the certification. You would, when the problem is called to your attention, supply a signed statement that the employee failed or refused to sign the certification and that your statement is true and accurate. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-Federal form or an expired Federal form, you must provide a signed statement ( i.e., a memorandum for the record). It must state that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT drug test, and that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control. The statement must also list the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-Federal forms or expired Federal forms for DOT tests. For this flaw to be corrected, the test of the specimen must have occurred at an HHS-certified laboratory where it was tested consistent with the requirements of this part. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
17. In §40.225, revise paragraph (a) and add paragraphs (d) and (e) to read as follows:
§40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
(a) The DOT Alcohol Testing Form (ATF) must be used for every DOT alcohol test. The ATF must be a three-part carbonless manifold form or an electronic ATF that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. The ATF is found in appendix G to this part. You may view this form on the ODAPC website ( https://www.transportation.gov/odapc ).
* * * * *
(d) As an employer, you may use an electronic ATF that meets the following requirements:
(1) The electronic ATF must be identical in form and content to the ATF found in appendix G to this part.
(2) The electronic ATF must meet the requirements of §40.4(d).
(3) The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT.
(4) If an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results (see §40.253(g)), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout.
(e) As an employer, BAT, or STT using an electronic ATF, you must establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form.
18. In §40.255, revise paragraph (a)(5)(i) to read as follows:
§40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(i) You may transmit the results using Copy 1 of the ATF, in person, by telephone, or by electronic means. In any case, you must immediately notify the DER of any result of 0.02 or greater by any means that ensures the result is immediately received by the DER. You must not transmit these results through C/TPAs or other service agents.
* * * * *
19. In §40.261, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(c)(1) As a BAT or an STT, or as the physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation, when an employee refuses to test as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the ATF (or in a separate document which you cause to be attached to the form), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. You must make this notification directly to the DER (not using a C/TPA as an intermediary).
* * * * *
20. In §40.271, revise paragraph (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-DOT form, you must, as the person responsible for the use of the incorrect form, certify in writing that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT alcohol test. You must also provide a signed statement that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control, and the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-DOT forms for DOT tests. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
21. In §40.365, revise paragraphs (b)(13) and (14) and add paragraph (b)(15) to read as follows:
§40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(13) For any service agent, directing or recommending that an employer fail or refuse to implement any provision of this part;
(14) With respect to noncompliance with a DOT agency regulation, conduct that affects important provisions of Department-wide concern ( e.g., failure to properly conduct the selection process for random testing); or
(15) For a service agent, failing to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system. PART 199—DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING
22. The authority citation for part 199 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 5103, 60102, 60104, 60108, 60117, and 60118; 49 CFR 1.53.
23. In §199.3:
a. Designate the introductory text as paragraph (b); and
b. Add paragraph (a).
The addition reads as follows:
§199.3 Definitions.
(a) Terms used in this part have the same meaning as in 49 CFR 40.3.
* * * * *
24. Add §199.4 to read as follows:
§199.4 Electronic documents, records, and signatures.
Electronic documents, records, and signatures may be used to comply with this part provided they meet the requirements specified in 49 CFR part 40.
25. In §199.117, revise paragraph (a) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.117 Recordkeeping.
(a) Each operator shall keep the records in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for the periods specified by this section or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater; and will permit access to the records as provided by §190.203.
* * * * *
26. In §199.119, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.119 Reporting of anti-drug testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual Management Information System (MIS) report to PHMSA of its anti-drug testing using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
27. In §199.227, revise paragraph (b) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.227 Retention of records.
* * * * *
(b) Period of retention. Each operator shall maintain the records in accordance with the following schedule or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater:
* * * * *
28. In §199.229, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.229 Reporting of alcohol testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual MIS report to PHMSA of its alcohol testing results using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
Signed on: Thursday, October 3, 2024.
Pete Buttigieg,
Secretary of Transportation.
[FR Doc. 2024-23427 Filed 10-11-24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P
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Most Recent Highlights In Environmental
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EHS Monthly Round Up - January 2023
In this monthly roundup video, we’ll review the most impactful environmental, safety, and health news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental, safety, and health news. First, let’s take a look at what’s happening in safety and health.
If you haven’t already done so, now is the time to post your OSHA 300A Summary. Employers are required to post the Summary in a conspicuous place from February 1st through April 30th.
As required by law, OSHA increased its penalties for inflation in mid-January. Penalties went up 7.7 percent, effective January 17th.
Also in January, OSHA released its long-awaited Fall 2022 regulatory agenda. Along with numerous proposed rules in the works, three major final rules are slated for 2023 – COVID-19 in healthcare, Injury and Illness tracking, and an update to the hazard communication standard.
OSHA recently released two new letters of interpretation, which address exit signs and lockout/tagout. Specifically, OSHA states that the International Standards Organization emergency exit symbol can be located beside the mandatory EXIT text on an existing sign.
The second letter addresses the applicability of lockout/tagout and the maintenance and operations of cathodic protection rectifiers when working on pipelines.
New York’s Warehouse Worker Protection Act was signed into law in December and takes effect in late February. It protects warehouse distribution workers from undisclosed or unlawful work speed quotas and includes protections for workers who fail to meet these quotas.
In 2021, a worker died every 101 minutes from a work-related injury, according to the Bureau of Labor Statistics. A total of 5,190 fatal work injuries was recorded in the U.S. in 2021, an 8.9 percent increase over 2020.
Turning to environmental news, EPA automatically added nine per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances, or PFAS, to the Toxics Release Inventory, or TRI, list. Four PFAS were added since they are no longer claimed as confidential business information.
EPA released its Fall 2022 regulatory agenda in early January. Included are major regulations impacting the National Ambient Air Quality Standards, waters of the United States, and modifications to the Risk Management Program under the Clean Air Act.
There are also a number of rules related to the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants in various rule stages.
And finally, beginning with model year 2027, heavy-duty trucks will be required to meet clean air standards that are 80 percent more stringent than current requirements.
EPA says this final rule is aimed at reducing smog- and soot-forming emissions, increasing the life of governed vehicles by up to 250 percent, and increasing emissions warranty periods up to 450 percent.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup!
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2026-10-20T05:00:00Z
Hawaii overhauls solid waste landfill regulations
Effective date: September 25, 2026
This applies to: Facilities that manage solid waste
Description of change: The State of Hawaii Department of Health made the first major update to the solid waste management control regulations in decades. The amended regulations:
- Increase flexibility for small municipal solid waste landfills (MSWLFs),
- Revise siting restrictions for MSWLFs,
- Add requirements for construction and demolition landfills and special waste landfills,
- Add leachate control and closure requirements for all solid waste management facilities,
- Require auto processing and salvaging on an impervious surface, and
- Update the solid waste permitting program.
Examples of significant changes include:
- Adding requirements for facilities that manage solid waste (except landfills), such as leachate control for all facilities and use of impervious working surfaces for solid waste salvage facilities;
- Updating MSWLF requirements (such as requiring compliance with the federal maximum contaminant level or state level (whichever is lower) for groundwater contaminants); and
- Adding new requirements for construction and demolition landfills.
Related state info: Non-hazardous solid waste and recycling state comparison
NewsChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsWater QualityEnvironmentalWater ProgramsEnglishNorth DakotaFocus AreaCWA Compliance
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North Dakota adopts permanent septic system rules
Effective date: October 1, 2026
This applies to: The licensing, permitting, and installation of on-site wastewater treatment systems (septic systems)
Description of change: The North Dakota Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) finalized permanent rules for on-site wastewater treatment systems (septic systems). The final rule establishes statewide licensing requirements, a common technical code, and a process for variances from the code.
Senate Bill 2267 shifted responsibility for regulating septic systems to the DEQ. The department issued an emergency rule in 2025 to continue existing licenses. This rulemaking finalizes:
- Licensing requirements for septic system installers,
- Training requirements for licensed septic system installers,
- Permit requirements (permits will continue to be issued by the local permitting authority), and
- Technical requirements (which closely align with the existing voluntary common code previously developed).
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Ohio establishes CCR regulations
Effective date: October 1, 2026
This applies to: Owners and operators of coal combustion residuals (CCR) landfills and surface impoundments
Description of change: The Ohio Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) adopted regulations for CCR generated by electric utilities and disposed of in dedicated landfills and surface impoundments. The new rules partially implement the federal CCR regulations (40 CFR Part 257 Subpart D). They also contain state-specific provisions (OAC Chapter 3745-525) for requirements related to CCR permits to install and financial assurance for landfills previously regulated by OAC Chapter 3745-30.
The Ohio EPA plans to apply for partial approval to implement the CCR program in place of EPA.
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Texas adopts financial assurance rules for recycling facilities
Effective date: October 1, 2026
This applies to: Recycling facilities that accept, process, and repurpose renewable energy components
Description of change: The Texas Commission on Environmental Quality (TCEQ)’s final rule adds 30 TAC Chapter 376 (and amends Chapter 328 accordingly) to establish new requirements for recycling facilities that accept, process, and repurpose renewable energy components for recovering valuable materials from:
- Wind turbine generators,
- Solar energy devices, and
- Battery energy storage systems.
The new rule adds reporting, financial assurance, and penalty requirements. For example, the regulation requires recycling facilities to submit annual reports by January 15 that include:
- An inventory of unrecycled renewable energy components,
- An estimated timeline to recycle them,
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- Evidence of financial assurance for the cost estimate.
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California amends vehicle regulations
Effective date: September 10, 2026
This applies to: Public agency utilities, high-priority fleets, and drayer trucks subject to the Advanced Clean Fleets (ACF) regulation and hydrogen refueling stations subject to the Low Carbon Fuel Standard (LCFS) regulation
Description of change: The California Air Resources Board (CARB) amended the ACF’s state and local government requirements. CARB’s final rule:
- Extends the 50 percent zero-emission vehicle (ZEV) purchase requirement to January 1, 2030;
- Modifies the Daily Usage Exemption and the ZEV Purchase Exemption to allow all vehicles of all model years to be eligible for consideration;
- Adds an exemption under the ZEV Milestones Option for captive waste and wastewater fleets that produce biomethane on-site;
- Expands the ZEV Purchase Exemption availability criteria to ensure minimum ZEV warranty requirements and manufacturer experience or reliability and streamlines the exemption process;
- Modifies the Fleet Resiliency Exemption by lowering the ZEV penetration threshold from 25 to 5 percent of the fleet where it stays and expands eligibility to all vehicle types; and
- Repeals sections of the ACF regulation for high-priority fleets and drayer trucks (these regulations were never implemented because CARB didn’t have a federal preemption waiver to enforce them).
CARB also amended the LCFS regulation, modifying the derating factors for light- and medium-duty hydrogen refueling infrastructure (LMD-HRI) crediting. CARB reduced the derating factor so that LMD-HRI stations may receive HRI credits for the full nameplate capacity for public stations and 50 percent of the nameplate capacity for private stations.
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EPA proposes reallocating excess 2025 SREs to 2026, 2027
On October 16, 2026, EPA published a rule proposing to revise the Small Refinery Exemption (SRE) reallocation volumes for compliance years 2026 and 2027 under the Renewable Fuel Standard (RFS) program.
Who’s impacted?
The RFS program applies to obligated parties, including:
- Refiners of gasoline or diesel fuel (i.e., transportation fuel); and
- Importers of transportation fuel.
EPA sets annual renewable fuel volume and percentage standards for each compliance year. Obligated parties must calculate their individual renewable volume obligations (RVOs), measured in Renewable Identification Numbers (RINs), and obtain and retire enough RINs to meet their RVOs for each compliance year.
What’s the issue?
In April 2026, EPA established the annual volume and percentage standards for the 2026 and 2027 compliance years (Set 2 Rule), including reallocating part of the SREs granted and expected to be granted for the 2023–2025 compliance years.
However, EPA granted a higher volume of SREs for the 2025 compliance year than expected, exempting 770 million more RINs than the Set 2 Rule projected for the 2026 and 2027 compliance years. The agency plans to revise the Set 2 Rule to account for the additional SRE reallocation volume.
What’s the proposed solution?
EPA proposes reallocating 100 percent of the additional 770 million RINs by reallocating the additional 2025 exempted RVO either:
- Equally between the 2026 and 2027 compliance years, or
- Fully to the 2027 compliance year.
The proposed rule would adjust the renewable volume and percentage standards for biomass-based diesel, advanced biofuel, and total renewable fuel. The Set 2 Rule didn’t establish SRE reallocation volumes for cellulosic biofuel.
Additionally, the proposed rule may extend the current 2026 compliance reporting deadline of March 31, 2027.
EPA will host a virtual public hearing for the proposed rule on November 4, 2026. Public comments on the rule are due by December 4, 2026 (Docket ID No. EPA-HQ-OAR-2024-0505).
Key to remember: EPA proposes to reallocate the excess 2025 small refinery exemption volumes to the 2026 and 2027 compliance years.
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2026-10-16T05:00:00Z
When one activity triggers multiple environmental obligations
Environmental compliance programs are often managed separately. Air permitting, hazardous waste, stormwater, emergency planning, and chemical reporting frequently involve different personnel, regulations, and procedures.
The challenge is that facilities don't operate that way. They operate processes, and those processes rarely fit neatly within a single regulatory category.
A company rarely decides to implement an "air program change" or a "hazardous waste change." Instead, it purchases a new solvent, installs a fuel tank, modifies a manufacturing process, or adds new equipment. A single operational decision can affect multiple environmental compliance programs at the same time. When organizations evaluate changes through only one regulatory lens, they risk overlooking obligations that arise elsewhere.
The following examples illustrate how one product, process, or activity can trigger requirements across several environmental programs.
Switching to a new paint or solvent
A facility may decide to replace an existing paint, coating, or solvent to improve product quality, address supply chain challenges, or reduce costs. Before making the switch, environmental professionals should consider how the change could affect multiple compliance obligations.
A new paint or solvent may contain a different concentration of volatile organic compounds (VOCs), affecting air emission calculations, permit applicability, or recordkeeping requirements. Spent materials, contaminated wipes, absorbents, and cleanup residues may require a new hazardous waste determination. Depending on the chemical composition and quantities involved, the material could also affect Tier II inventory reporting or Toxics Release Inventory (TRI) reporting obligations.
What appears to be a straightforward purchasing decision can ultimately affect air compliance, waste management, and chemical reporting programs.
Installing a diesel fuel storage tank
Organizations often add fuel storage to support emergency generators, fleet operations, or business continuity initiatives. While the project may be viewed primarily as an operational improvement, it can create environmental obligations in several areas.
The tank may count toward Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure (SPCC) applicability thresholds. Fuel storage can also increase stormwater pollution risks, requiring updates to inspection procedures, pollution prevention controls, or employee training. Secondary containment requirements, spill response procedures, and release reporting obligations may also need review.
A project initially viewed as a facilities improvement may affect spill prevention, stormwater management, and emergency preparedness responsibilities.
Managing aerosol cans
Aerosol cans are commonly used throughout facilities for maintenance, cleaning, lubrication, painting, and other routine activities. Their widespread use can cause organizations to overlook their broader compliance implications.
Depending on how they're managed, discarded aerosol cans may qualify for the federal universal waste regulations. If cans are punctured and processed for recycling, facilities must also consider hazardous waste management requirements, employee training, and potential air emission concerns associated with puncturing operations. Likewise, storage practices, container management, and recordkeeping procedures should be evaluated.
Because aerosol cans intersect with waste management, recycling, and air concerns, they demonstrate how a routine maintenance activity can involve multiple regulatory programs.
Adding a refrigeration process
Expanding refrigerated storage capacity or installing a new industrial refrigeration process may seem like a project driven by production needs. However, depending on the refrigerant used and the quantity stored on-site, the environmental and safety implications can extend well beyond equipment installation.
Certain refrigerants may be subject to leak management and repair, servicing, recovery, and recordkeeping requirements. Depending on the substance and quantity stored on-site, facilities may also trigger Tier II or TRI reporting obligations.
For facilities using substances such as anhydrous ammonia, increasing refrigerant inventories may have even broader consequences. Exceeding regulatory thresholds could trigger EPA's Risk Management Program (RMP) requirements and OSHA's Process Safety Management (PSM) obligations, adding responsibilities related to process hazard analyses, operating procedures, employee training, emergency planning, mechanical integrity, and management of change.
The project may also require updates to emergency response procedures, hazard communication programs, and chemical inventory management processes. As a result, a decision driven by production or storage needs may affect environmental reporting, accident prevention, emergency preparedness, and process safety requirements across the facility.
Looking beyond program boundaries
Environmental regulations are often organized by media, program, or statute. Facilities, however, operate through products, equipment, and processes. Because of this difference in perspective, a single operational change can have consequences that reach far beyond its original purpose.
Organizations that routinely evaluate projects through multiple compliance lenses are often better positioned to identify environmental obligations before they become compliance issues. Asking how a new product, process, equipment installation, or operational change might affect air, waste, water, chemical reporting, spill prevention, emergency planning, or process safety requirements can help reduce surprises and support more effective compliance management.
Key to remember: Environmental compliance obligations rarely exist in isolation. Before implementing a new product, process, or operational change, consider how it may affect multiple environmental programs, not just the one most directly associated with the project.
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2026-10-16T05:00:00Z
Court vacates EPA’s methylene chloride rule: How should facilities respond?
When a court overturns an environmental regulation, it can be tempting to adopt an “all bets are off” approach and stop efforts to comply with the rule. However, facilities that continue to operate as if the rule still applies are better prepared to meet any future rulemaking that’s likely to occur. On September 15, 2026, the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit vacated EPA’s methylene chloride risk management rule established under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) and remanded it back to the federal agency for further proceedings. EPA must restart the rulemaking process for methylene chloride.
Here’s what you need to know about the ruling and how your facility can respond to “hedge its bets” against future environmental regulations of methylene chloride.
What regulations and facilities are impacted?
The court’s decision in East Fork Enterprises, Inc. v. EPA (Case No. 24-60227) impacts EPA’s methylene chloride risk management rule finalized in May 2024 (2024 final rule). The rule applied to entities that manufacture (including import), process, distribute in commerce, use, or dispose of methylene chloride or methylene chloride-containing products.
Reasons for overturning the methylene chloride rule
The court listed a range of reasons for vacating the 2024 final rule, including the following significant findings.
Whole-chemical approach
EPA used a “whole chemical” approach in its revised 2022 risk determination for methylene chloride (on which the 2024 final rule is based) instead of making individual risk determinations for each condition of use (COU). As a result, EPA recharacterized six COUs (previously found not to present unreasonable risk) as posing unreasonable risk.
Court’s conclusion: TSCA doesn’t permit EPA to issue a whole-chemical risk determination; it requires EPA to evaluate and issue risk determinations for each COU.
Personal protective equipment (PPE) assumption
In its 2022 risk determination, EPA didn’t assume that exposed employees use PPE. However, TSCA requires the agency to account for PPE use if evidence suggests that it’s commonly used.
Court’s conclusion: There was sufficient evidence for EPA to assume PPE use, especially given that OSHA’s methylene chloride standard generally requires the use of PPE when employee exposure warrants it.
Risk analysis methods
EPA’s approach to “unreasonable risk” went beyond the statutory limits, appearing to attempt to eliminate nearly all risks. Further, EPA’s risk analysis didn’t comply with TSCA’s “best available science” standard (producing exposure limits unsupported by substantial evidence), and the agency overlooked relevant evidence.
Court’s conclusion: TSCA requires EPA to identify only unreasonable risk, which allows for some risk; the act isn’t designed to eliminate all risk. Also, TSCA mandates the agency to base its risk evaluations on all acceptable scientific information, including data contrary to its presuppositions.
Regulating to the extent necessary
EPA exceeded its authority by imposing regulations beyond “the extent necessary.” The court ruled that EPA’s basis for requiring a near-complete ban on methylene chloride use was unauthorized because it was based on the agency’s uncertainty as to whether a risk deemed reasonable will stay reasonable.
Court’s conclusion: TSCA permits EPA to eliminate actual, identified unreasonable risk. The agency can’t ban chemicals based on a reasonable risk that may become unreasonable in the future.
What’s next?
The court vacated with remand EPA’s methylene chloride rule and associated risk determination. As a result, EPA’s risk determination for methylene chloride is invalid, and the methylene chloride risk management rule is no longer in effect. Additionally, EPA must develop a new risk management rule that resolves the issues identified in the court’s opinion.
How should regulated entities respond?
EPA’s methylene chloride risk management rule is legally unenforceable, including its bans on uses and the regulatory requirements (such as the Workplace Chemical Protection Program). However, due to the uncertainty of EPA’s response and future rulemaking, companies should respond thoughtfully. Consider these tips:
- Watch closely for EPA’s response to this litigation.
- Consider maintaining protective measures and compliance programs that were implemented in response to the 2024 final rule, where possible. Continuing these efforts may ease compliance burdens if EPA issues a revised rule in the future. For example:
- Continue conducting exposure monitoring and recording the results,
- Keep searching for possible substitutes, and
- Maintain workplace protections that are already implemented.
- Ensure compliance with existing methylene chloride regulations, including:
- EPA’s March 2019 final rule banning methylene chloride for consumer paint and coating removal, and
- OSHA’s occupational exposure control requirements for methylene chloride (29 CFR 1910.1052).
Key to remember: A U.S. court vacated EPA’s 2024 methylene chloride risk management rule, but facilities that maintain protections and compliance programs developed under the rule may be better prepared for any future regulations of the chemical.
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsToxic Substances Control Act - EPAToxic Subtances Control Act - EPATSCA ComplianceToxic Substances - EPAEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)EnvironmentalEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-10-14T05:00:00Z
EPA proposes additional TCE compliance delays
On October 14, 2026, EPA published a proposed rule to extend additional compliance dates for the trichloroethylene (TCE) risk management rule finalized in 2024 (2024 TCE final rule) under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA). If finalized, the rule would delay compliance deadlines for certain chemical processors and refrigerant manufacturers.
Who’s impacted?
The 2024 TCE final rule applies to entities that manufacture (including import), process, distribute in commerce, use, or dispose of TCE or TCE-containing products.
The proposed rule specifically affects:
- Chemical processors;
- Manufacturers, processors, and distributors subject to downstream notification requirements; and
- Refrigerant manufacturers that process TCE to make HFC-134a.
What are the proposed changes?
For chemical processors, EPA proposes to move the prohibition compliance dates from December 18, 2026, to December 31, 2027, for:
- Processing TCE as a reactant/intermediate;
- Processing TCE for the industrial and commercial use of TCE as a processing aid in as well as the industrial and commercial use of TCE as a processing aid in:
- Process solvent used in battery manufacturing;
- Process solvent used in polymer fiber spinning, fluoroelastomer manufacturing, and Alcantara manufacturing;
- Extraction solvent used in caprolactam manufacturing; and
- Precipitant used in beta-cyclodextrin manufacturing.
- Disposing of TCE through wastewater from such processing and uses to industrial pretreatment, industrial treatment, or publicly owned treatment works.
For manufacturers, processors, and distributors in commerce, the proposed rule amends the compliance date for downstream notifications and the text required to be in the Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) to reflect the new prohibition compliance dates. EPA would require affected manufacturers, processors, and distributors to update the SDSs with the new text 30 days after the publication date of a final rule.
For refrigerant manufacturers, EPA proposes extending the first phaseout reduction of processing TCE as an intermediate to manufacture HFC-134a. The 2024 TCE final rule requires manufacturers to reduce the annual amount of TCE feedstock they use to no greater than 75 percent of their baseline by June 7, 2027. This proposed rule would push the compliance date to December 31, 2027.
Key to remember: EPA proposes extending the TCE prohibition compliance deadline for certain chemical processors and the TCE feedstock phasedown date for specific refrigerant manufacturers.
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2026-10-14T05:00:00Z
EPA further delays 2025 GHGRP submissions
EPA published an interim final rule on October 14, 2026, further extending the submission deadline for the reporting year (RY) 2025 annual greenhouse gas (GHG) report from October 30, 2026, to March 10, 2027.
Who’s impacted?
The final rule applies to facilities subject to the GHG Reporting Program (GHGRP) at 40 CFR Part 98. Generally, three types of entities must report:
- Large industrial sources of GHG emissions that directly emit 25,000 or more metric tons of carbon dioxide equivalent (CO2e) per year;
- Fuel and industrial gas suppliers whose products would result in 25,000 or more metric tons of CO2e of GHG emissions per year if combusted, released, or oxidized; and
- CO2 injection facilities that inject any amount of CO2 into the subsurface.
What’s the new deadline?
The interim final rule pushes the submission deadline for the RY 2025 GHG report from October 30, 2026, to March 10, 2027. The delay only applies to the RY 2025 GHG report.
Rule refresher
The GHGRP requirements are based on source categories in the subparts of Part 98. Facilities must report GHG emissions from the previous calendar year for all applicable source categories.
Reporters must use specific methods to calculate GHG emissions, which are detailed in the regulations. Facilities submit the annual GHG report to EPA using the electronic Greenhouse Gas Reporting Tool (e-GGRT).
Key to remember: EPA's interim final rule extends the submission deadline for the 2025 annual GHG report to March 10, 2027.
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2026-10-13T05:00:00Z
EPA delays CWA hazardous substances FRPs by 3 years
EPA issued a final rule on October 13, 2026, extending the compliance date to submit Facility Response Plans (FRPs) for worst-case discharges of Clean Water Act (CWA) hazardous substances by 3 years.
Effective December 14, 2026, the final rule also removes provisions related to climate change and environmental justice.
Who’s impacted?
The extension affects facilities subject to the FRP requirements of 40 CFR Part 118. These include onshore non-transportation-related facilities that:
- Could be reasonably expected to cause substantial harm to the environment by discharging a CWA hazardous substance (117.3) into or on the navigable waters, adjoining shorelines, or exclusive economic zone; and
- Meet the applicability criteria listed at 118.3.
What are the changes?
The agency moved the deadline from June 1, 2027, to June 1, 2030, providing regulated facilities additional time to prepare and submit their CWA hazardous substances FRPs to EPA. Covered entities must also submit a Substantial Harm Certification Form (Appendix A to Part 118) with the FRP.
| Type of facility | FRP submission deadline |
|---|---|
| Existing facility (in operation by November 30, 2029) | June 1, 2030 |
| Newly regulated facility (meets applicability criteria after November 30, 2029) | Within 6 months of meeting applicability criteria |
| Newly constructed facility* (starts operations after June 1, 2030) | Before starting operations |
| Facility with planned event/change* (occurs after June 1, 2030) | Before changed part of facility starts operations |
| Facility with unplanned event/change (occurs after June 1, 2030) | Within 6 months of event/change |
* If changes occur during startup, facilities must submit adjustments to the FRP after a 60-day operational trial period.
EPA also removed the following factors considered during the substantial harm determination:
- Enhancing resilience to climate change as a passive mitigation measure or system,
- Possible vulnerability to adverse weather conditions caused by climate change, and
- Potential adverse impacts to communities with environmental justice concerns.
Further, the agency removed requirements to include the impacts of climate change and the impacts on communities with environmental justice concerns in the hazard evaluation.
Key to remember: EPA extended the compliance deadline to June 1, 2030, for entities to submit Facility Response Plans for worst-case discharges of CWA hazardous substances.
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EHS Monthly Round Up - September 2026
In this September 2026 roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what happened over the past month.
For the 16th consecutive year, fall protection for construction topped OSHA’s list of most frequently cited standards. Preliminary inspection data for fiscal year 2026 show that OSHA recorded just over 4,000 fall protection construction violations, down from nearly 6,000 in FY 2025. The standards rounding out the Top 10 list remain unchanged from previous years, though some rankings have shifted.
The next HazCom compliance deadline is coming up on November 20. Employers who purchase substances that are aerosols, desensitized explosives, and flammable gases will receive – or may already have received – revised safety data sheets and see updated labels with their shipments. In addition, all employers must, as necessary, update any alternative workplace labeling, update their HazCom training program, and provide additional employee training for any newly identified hazards. Employers also must retain any new SDSs they receive.
California's Occupational Safety and Health Standards Board released a revised discussion draft of its proposed workplace violence prevention rule for general industry. The draft better defines employer responsibilities under the state’s workplace violence prevention law.
Turning to environmental news, EPA repealed the majority of the greenhouse gas emission standards established by the 2024 Carbon Pollution Standards for fossil fuel-fired power plants. The agency also proposes to remove the remaining GHG emission requirements for these plants.
And finally, EPA extended the Renewable Fuel Standard compliance deadline from September 1 to October 1. The extension gave parties more time to assess the impact of EPA’s small refinery exemption decisions and adjust their strategies before completing their 2025 reporting obligations.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - October 2024
In this October 2024 roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news. Please view the content links in the transcript for more information about the topics I’ll be covering today. Let’s get started!
A Government Accountability Office report says OSHA can do more to protect warehouse and delivery workers from ergonomic injuries. The report recommends several steps for OSHA to consider, including ensuring compliance officers can easily obtain data on when musculoskeletal disorders occurred.
OSHA updated its inspection guidance for animal slaughtering and processing industries. Inspections will focus on several hazards, including sanitation, ergonomics, and machine guarding. Among other changes, compliance officers will conduct inspections during off-shift times and identify workplace activities that impact employees most at risk such as temporary employees.
OSHA urges workers involved in hurricane cleanup and recovery efforts to be mindful of hazards, especially those associated with restoring electricity, removing debris, and trimming trees. Proper training, experience, and familiarity with related equipment helps ensure worker safety.
And finally, turning to environmental news, EPA extended the 2024 Chemical Data Reporting deadline to November 22 due to technical difficulties with its electronic reporting tool. The 2024 report covers activities that occurred between calendar years 2020 and 2023.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - May 2023
In this monthly roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental, safety, and health news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news. Please view the content links in the transcript to take a deeper dive into the topics I’ll be covering today. With that said, let’s get started!
First, let’s take a look at what’s happening in safety and health. The week of May 1 marked the 10th annual Stand-Down to Prevent Falls in Construction. Employers were encouraged to have safety talks or demonstrations on the use of fall protection.
A new National Emphasis Program on fall prevention covers all industries, with a focus on construction and specific general industry activities. It took effect May 1; however, programmed inspections will begin after a 90-day outreach period.
With the start of lawn-care season, a recent OSHA case highlights some of the risks involved. The Agency found a lawn service contractor operating in Kentucky ignored safety requirements to save time.
A forklift operator suffered fatal injuries after falling into a recycling baler while trying to remove a jam. Investigators found a lack of training and communication were contributing factors.
In response to larger, more frequent wildfires, the state of Washington has proposed permanent wildfire smoke rules. They include year-round requirements for employers that will be in effect whenever there’s a risk that workers will be exposed to wildfire smoke.
And finally, turning to environmental news, EPA finalized changes to the new source performance standards for Automobile and Light Duty Truck Surface Coating Operations. The rule adds more emissions requirements for such operations.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - January 2024
In this monthly video, we'll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll go over the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news. Please view the content links in the transcript for more information about the topics I’ll be covering today. Let’s get started!
Effective January 15, OSHA penalties increased 3.2 percent for inflation. Most penalties increased to $16,131. Willful and serious violations, however, increased to $161,323.
Construction workers aged 45 and older suffer more severe injuries and higher associated costs than other age groups. Most injuries are due to slips, trips, and falls.
Washington State updated its process safety management rules to better protect workers in petroleum refineries from the hazards of volatile chemicals. The rules take effect December 27, 2024.
Bloodborne pathogens topped the list of OSHA violations for the healthcare industry in 2023. Hazard Communication was the second most cited standard, followed by respiratory protection.
OSHA Region 2 launched a regional emphasis program that targets tree trimming, tree removal, and land clearing operations. Region 2 includes New York, New Jersey, Puerto Rico, and the U.S. Virgin Islands.
EPA continues to strengthen its regulation of per- and polyfluoroalkyl — or PFAS — substances. A new rule prevents facilities from using any of the 300+ inactive PFAS before EPA conducts a risk determination and, if necessary, regulates the activity.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - May 2025
In this May 2025 roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let's take a look at what happened over the last month!
OSHA will host an informal public hearing on its proposed Heat Injury and Illness Prevention rule on June 16. Information about the proposed rule and instructions on how to watch the hearing can be found on OSHA’s website.
OSHA’s National Safety Stand-Down to Prevent Falls in Construction event, held the week of May 5, raised awareness of fall hazards in an effort to help prevent injuries and fatalities. Slips, trips, and falls were the leading cause of death in the construction industry in 2023, accounting for 421 fatalities.
After concluding its investigation of a California chemical facility fire, the Chemical Safety and Hazard Investigation Board is calling for improved heater safeguards to prevent similar incidents. The fire was caused by an overheated refinery furnace. The Board also made several safety recommendations for chemical facilities.
Following a number of recent fall incidents, the Mine Safety and Health Administration issued a safety alert advising miners to use fall protection. The most recent incident occurred when a miner fell from the deck of a bulldozer.
Turning to environmental news, EPA further delayed the PFAS manufacturing report submission period. The date was moved from July 11, 2025, to April 13, 2026. This is a one-time reporting requirement for manufacturers of per- and polyfluoroalkyl, or PFAS, substances.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - December 2024
In this December 2024 roundup video, we’ll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news. Please view the content links in the transcript for more information about the topics I’ll be covering today. Let’s get started!
OSHA’s personal protective equipment in construction final rule takes effect January 13. Employers must ensure PPE is of safe design and construction for the work to be performed and properly fits employees.
OSHA extended the comment deadline to January 14 for its proposed heat illness prevention rule. This gives stakeholders two more weeks to review the proposal and comment on it. An informal public hearing on the rule is scheduled for June 16.
OSHA released its Fall 2024 regulatory agenda on December 13. Many final and proposed rulemakings have been pushed into the first half of 2025, and a few have been bumped into the third quarter of the year.
OSHA updated its arc flash guidance for employees working on energized electrical equipment. Arc flash incidents can ignite clothing, cause structural fires, and cause severe or fatal burns. The guidance covers protecting employees from arc flash hazards, common electrical work myths, establishing boundaries around arc flash hazards, and being aware of arc flash hazards.
Warehouse, delivery, and retail workers are at increased risk for injuries and illnesses during the holidays due to higher volumes of work to meet consumer demand. OSHA reminds employers to protect workers by ensuring they’re trained to recognize and prevent hazards.
And finally, turning to environmental news, EPA released its Fall 2024 regulatory agenda on December 13. It includes projected publication dates for several final and proposed rules that may impact industry compliance with air, land, and water regulations.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - April 2025
In this April 2025 roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what’s happened over the last month!
On April 17, OSHA released 2024 injury and illness data. This includes information from more than 370,000 establishments that submitted Form 300A, as well as partial data from more than 732,000 Form 300 and Form 301 records. OSHA provides public access to the data in an effort to identify unsafe conditions and workplace hazards that may lead to occupational injuries and illnesses.
This year’s National Stand-Down to Prevent Struck-by Incidents took place the week of April 21. Struck-by incidents are the second leading cause of death among construction workers and the leading cause of nonfatal injuries in the construction industry. The stand-down emphasized the importance of training and prevention on worksites.
A safety alert from the Mine Safety and Health Administration urges the mining community to implement effective safety and health programs, with a focus on identifying and eliminating health and safety hazards. The alert was issued due to a high number of mining fatalities in the first quarter of 2025.
The Mine Safety and Health Administration temporarily paused its silica enforcement for coal mine operators until August 18, four months from its original compliance date of April 14. Under the agency’s silica rule, mine operators must update their respiratory protection programs. This may require them to obtain additional respirators and sampling devices. The agency says this four-month pause provides time for operators to come into compliance.
And finally, turning to environmental news, EPA updated the process for making data corrections to hazardous waste manifests. Waste handlers must correct errors on the manifest within 30 days of a request from EPA or a state agency. They also must submit corrections electronically.
And finally, EPA streamlined its pesticide registration process. The agency updated its MyPest app and made policy changes regarding how to submit two of its registration forms.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - August 2023
In this monthly roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we'll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news. Please view the content links in the transcript to take a deeper dive into the topics I'll be covering today. With that said, let's get started!
In response to soaring temperatures across the country, OSHA issued a heat hazard alert reminding employers of their obligation to protect workers against heat illness. OSHA also ramped up enforcement activities in high-risk industries like construction and agriculture.
OSHA's annual Safe and Sound Week was held the week of August 7. It highlighted the importance of workplace safety and health programs. This year's focus was on mental health and well-being.
OSHA wants to know how you use your safety and health program to ensure a positive workplace safety culture. The agency has drawn up questions related to work safety values, safety messaging, and more, and will use your feedback to develop educational materials. November 30 is the deadline for comments.
Though the current hurricane season has been relatively quiet, it's important to be prepared as the height of the season approaches. Both OSHA and NIOSH have provided resources to help emergency responders, recovery workers, and employers prepare in advance for anticipated weather disasters.
Workplace deaths due to unintentional overdoses of fentanyl and methamphetamine continue to rise. In 2021, there were 464 such fatalities, a 19.6 percent increase over 2020.
And finally, turning to environmental news, receiving facilities will see increased user fees for the e-Manifest system in fiscal years 2024 and 2025. EPA sets these user fees based on how the manifest is submitted and processing costs for each manifest type. Using fully electronic waste manifests will cost significantly less.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We'll see you next month!
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2026-04-13T05:00:00Z
EPA delays TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS reporting timeline again
On April 13, 2026, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule that further delays the submission period for the one-time report required of manufacturers on per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) by the PFAS Reporting and Recordkeeping Rule (PFAS Reporting Rule).
This final rule pushes the starting submission period to either 60 days after the effective date of a future final rule updating the PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027, whichever is earlier.
Who’s impacted?
Established under Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Section 8(a)(7), the PFAS Reporting Rule (40 CFR Part 705) requires any business that manufactured (including imported) any PFAS or PFAS-containing article between 2011 and 2022 to report. Covered manufacturers and importers must submit information on:
- Chemical identity, uses, and volumes made and processed;
- Byproducts;
- Environmental and health effects;
- Worker exposure; and
- Disposal.
What’s the new timeline?
The opening submission period was moved from April 13, 2026, to either 60 days after the effective date of a future final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027, whichever is earlier.
Most manufacturers have 6 months to submit the report. Small manufacturers reporting only as importers of PFAS-containing articles have 1 year.
| TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS Reporting Rule submission period | ||
|---|---|---|
| Start date | End date | |
| Most manufacturers | 60 days from effective date of final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) | 6 months from start date or July 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) |
| Small manufacturers reporting solely as PFAS article importers | 60 days from effective date of final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) | 1 year from start date or January 31, 2028 (whichever is earlier) |
Why the delay?
In November 2025, the agency proposed updates to the PFAS Reporting Rule. EPA has delayed the reporting period to give the agency time to issue a final rule (expected later this year).
Key to remember: EPA has delayed the starting submission deadline for the TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS Reporting Rule from April 2026 to no later than January 2027.
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2025-12-02T06:00:00Z
Louisiana adds aerosol cans to universal waste program
Effective date: November 20, 2025
This applies to: Owners and operators of all facilities that generate, transport, treat, store, or dispose of hazardous waste
Description of change: The Louisiana Department of Environmental Quality added hazardous waste aerosol cans to the universal waste program. The program streamlines hazardous waste management requirements and is identical to the federal universal waste requirements for aerosol cans.
View related state info: Universal waste — Louisiana
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2026-02-24T06:00:00Z
EPA repeals stricter Mercury and Air Toxics Standards for coal-, oil-fired power plants
On February 24, 2026, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule repealing the 2024 amendments made to the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) for Coal- and Oil-Fired Electric Utility Steam Generating Units (EGUs). It’s also referred to as the Mercury and Air Toxics Standards (MATS) for power plants.
Effective April 27, 2026, this rule (2026 Final Rule) repeals stricter compliance requirements made to the MATS rule in May 2024 (2024 Final Rule) and reverts them to the less stringent standards established by the 2012 MATS Rule.
Who’s affected?
The rule applies to power plants with coal- and oil-fired EGUs subject to the NESHAP (40 CFR 63 Subpart UUUUU).
What are the changes?
The final rule repeals these 2024 amendments:
- The revised filterable particulate matter (fPM) emission standard and corresponding total and individual non-metal hazardous air pollutant (HAP) metal standards for existing coal-fired EGUs (reverting to the 2012 MATS Rule requirements);
- The revised compliance demonstration requirements for all EGUs to install continuous emission monitoring systems (CEMS) for fPM emissions and the adjusted quality assurance criteria (reverting to the previous standard, allowing EGUs to choose from three compliance demonstration methods); and
- The revised mercury (Hg) emission standard for lignite-fired EGUs (reverting to the 2012 MATS Rule limit).
The 2026 Final Rule also reinstates the low-emitting EGU (LEE) program for fPM and non-Hg HAP metals. The LEE program requires less frequent stack testing for sources with emissions below 50 percent of the corresponding limit for 3 consecutive years.
Further, EPA’s final rule updates the fPM sampling requirements for EGUs that demonstrate compliance with a PM CEMS. These units must collect either a minimum catch of 6.0 milligrams or a minimum sample volume of 4 dry standard cubic meters (dscm) per test run. EGUs demonstrating compliance using other methods must collect a lower minimum sample volume of 1 dscm per PM test run.
| Compliance requirement | 2024 Final Rule | 2026 Final Rule |
|---|---|---|
| fPM emission limit for existing coal-fired EGUs | 0.010 pounds per million British thermal units of heat input (lb/MMBtu) | 0.030 lb/MMBTu |
| fPM emission compliance demonstration for all coal-and oil-fired EGUs | EGUs must use PM CEMS | EGUs may use:
|
| Hg emission limit for existing lignite-fired EGUs | 1.2 pounds per trillion British thermal units of heat input (lb/TBtu) | 4.0 lb/TBtu |
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2025-12-05T06:00:00Z
EPA’s 2026 regulatory shift: How environmental managers can stay ahead
The clock is ticking for environmental teams. By 2026, several new EPA regulations will reshape compliance obligations for U.S. companies. Organizations that act now will avoid costly penalties and operational disruptions.
What’s changing and why it matters
Although EPA has been deregulating or loosening some requirements, there are still some standards being tightened across multiple fronts in the coming year:
- Renewable fuel standards (RFS): The EPA proposed higher volume requirements for 2026, including 24.02 billion renewable identification numbers (RINs), up nearly 8% from 2025. This increase pushes stricter expectations on fuel producers and organizations purchasing renewable fuels.
- Stormwater multi-sector general permit (MSGP): A new MSGP set to take effect by February 2026 will require quarterly PFAS indicator monitoring, expanded benchmark sampling, and resiliency measures in stormwater control designs.
- PFAS Reporting under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA): TSCA Section 8(a)(7) mandates PFAS manufacturing and import data collection beginning in April 2026, through October 2026, with extended deadlines for certain small manufacturers.
Failure to prepare could lead to fines, reputational damage, supply chain disruptions, and permit delays. Companies that weave compliance planning into their 2026 strategy will be positioned not just to meet legal deadlines but to sustain operations smoothly.
Key areas of impact
- Renewable fuel standards (RFS) and air emissions The proposed increase in 2026 Renewable Identification Numbers (RIN) volumes, from 24.02 billion to 24.46 billion for 2027, signals tightening air and fuels policy that affects fuel use and emissions accounting.
- Stormwater management The upcoming 2026 MSGP requires expanded quarterly PFAS monitoring, new benchmark triggers, corrective action plans, and integration of climate resilience in design standards.
- PFAS disclosure (TSCA Section 8(a)(7)) Manufacturers and importers of PFAS must submit electronic reporting of usage, volumes, disposal, and exposure data between April and October 2026, with extensions available for smaller operations.
Steps to take now
- Audit compliance programs: Cross-check operations against RIN inventory, stormwater permits, and TSCA reporting duties.
- Upgrade monitoring and recordkeeping: Implement robust electronic systems to track PFAS, stormwater quality, fuel volumes, and emissions.
- Staff training: Educate teams on PFAS obligations, new stormwater protocols, and RFS structures.
- Engage regulators early: Comment on proposed rules, consult during permit drafting, and flag issues during the notice-and-comment period.
Looking ahead
The EPA’s 2026 updates reflect a trend toward increased transparency and environmental accountability. Companies that treat compliance as strategic will not only avoid enforcement but also gain resilience and stakeholder trust.
Key to remember: Start planning now. Early action on EPA rule changes will save time, money, and headaches when enforcement begins.
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EHS Monthly Round Up - January 2023
In this monthly roundup video, we’ll review the most impactful environmental, safety, and health news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental, safety, and health news. First, let’s take a look at what’s happening in safety and health.
If you haven’t already done so, now is the time to post your OSHA 300A Summary. Employers are required to post the Summary in a conspicuous place from February 1st through April 30th.
As required by law, OSHA increased its penalties for inflation in mid-January. Penalties went up 7.7 percent, effective January 17th.
Also in January, OSHA released its long-awaited Fall 2022 regulatory agenda. Along with numerous proposed rules in the works, three major final rules are slated for 2023 – COVID-19 in healthcare, Injury and Illness tracking, and an update to the hazard communication standard.
OSHA recently released two new letters of interpretation, which address exit signs and lockout/tagout. Specifically, OSHA states that the International Standards Organization emergency exit symbol can be located beside the mandatory EXIT text on an existing sign.
The second letter addresses the applicability of lockout/tagout and the maintenance and operations of cathodic protection rectifiers when working on pipelines.
New York’s Warehouse Worker Protection Act was signed into law in December and takes effect in late February. It protects warehouse distribution workers from undisclosed or unlawful work speed quotas and includes protections for workers who fail to meet these quotas.
In 2021, a worker died every 101 minutes from a work-related injury, according to the Bureau of Labor Statistics. A total of 5,190 fatal work injuries was recorded in the U.S. in 2021, an 8.9 percent increase over 2020.
Turning to environmental news, EPA automatically added nine per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances, or PFAS, to the Toxics Release Inventory, or TRI, list. Four PFAS were added since they are no longer claimed as confidential business information.
EPA released its Fall 2022 regulatory agenda in early January. Included are major regulations impacting the National Ambient Air Quality Standards, waters of the United States, and modifications to the Risk Management Program under the Clean Air Act.
There are also a number of rules related to the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants in various rule stages.
And finally, beginning with model year 2027, heavy-duty trucks will be required to meet clean air standards that are 80 percent more stringent than current requirements.
EPA says this final rule is aimed at reducing smog- and soot-forming emissions, increasing the life of governed vehicles by up to 250 percent, and increasing emissions warranty periods up to 450 percent.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup!
NewsMunicipal WastewaterChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishFocus AreaNorth Carolina
2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
North Carolina approved revisions to wastewater discharge rules
Effective date: May 1, 2026
This applies to: Facilities with domestic wastewater discharges up to 2 million gallons per day
Description of change: The North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) adopted a rule that adds a permitting option to the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) program for facilities with domestic wastewater discharges of up to 2 million gallons per day.
DEQ removed the ban on new or expanded discharges of oxygen-consuming waste when the 7Q10 and 30Q2 flows are both 0 for these facilities. In other words, it allows systems to discharge domestic wastewater to zero-flow receiving streams, provided the system:
- Meets qualifying criteria,
- Complies with specific effluent limits, and
- Uses low-energy methods before discharging wastewater to the receiving stream.
It’ll likely benefit areas where the cost of piping to a higher-flowing stream farther away is prohibitive.
Most Popular Highlights In Transportation
NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyFederal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOTDefensive drivingCMV drivingFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleFleet OperationsEnglishTransportationUSA
2026-10-15T05:00:00Z
Winter safety starts before the first storm
Fall’s shorter days and cooler temperatures are a reminder that winter weather is right around the corner. Now is the time to prepare your drivers for what’s ahead when it comes to staying safe during the winter months.
Be prepared
A sudden snowstorm can quickly turn into an emergency situation during the winter months. Drivers should make sure their vehicles are stocked with a winter survival kit and basic emergency supplies. In addition to the items that should be in their vehicle at all times (warning devices, jumper cables, tool kit, first aid kit), they should also carry the following items:
- A snow brush and scraper for clearing ice and snow;
- A shovel and traction devices (tire chains, sand, kitty litter) to help free a vehicle that becomes stuck in snow or ice;
- A brightly colored cloth to increase visibility if stranded;
- Warm blankets or a sleeping bag for protection from the cold;
- Extra food, water, and any necessary medications; and
- Additional winter clothing, including a coat, gloves, hat, and boots.
What to do if stranded
Even the most prepared drivers can find themselves stranded during severe winter weather. Knowing what to do is key to driver safety.
The most important rule is to stay in the vehicle. Unless help is clearly visible and within a short distance, leaving the vehicle can be extremely dangerous due to limited visibility, blowing snow, and the risk of becoming disoriented. If able to safely do it, the driver should hang a brightly colored cloth outside the vehicle to signal for help.
To stay warm, the engine and heater should run for about 10 minutes each hour. The driver should crack a window and keep the exhaust pipe free of snow to prevent carbon monoxide poisoning.
Retaining body heat is important to avoid hypothermia, a condition brought on when the body’s temperature drops to a dangerously low level. Symptoms of hypothermia include uncontrollable shivering, slow speech, memory lapses, and drowsiness.
Drivers can conserve body heat by wearing layers, using blankets or sleeping bags, and keeping their hands and feet warm. Simple movements, such as clapping hands and moving arms and legs, can also help maintain circulation until help arrives.
Key to remember: Now is the time to review winter survival tips with your drivers. Taking proactive steps today can help prevent problems when winter storms hit.
NewsIndustry NewsIn-Depth ArticlePrivate carrier authorityExempt Carrier AuthorityMotorcoach operating authorityPassenger carrier authorityOperating AuthorityFleet OperationsFocus AreaEnglishUSAFor-Hire Carrier AuthorityTransportationHousehold Goods Carrier authority
2026-10-14T05:00:00Z
One Texas-to-Texas load could change your registration requirements
Many carriers believe that once they’ve obtained their interstate authority, they’re authorized to make any type of move in any state — but that’s not always the case. Texas is a great example of this, as having interstate operating authority doesn’t always give a motor carrier everything it needs to conduct transportation within the state of Texas.
This is why it’s essential that carriers look closely at any movements that both begin and end in Texas. Even a carrier that primarily operates in interstate commerce needs Texas intrastate authority if it performs a point-to-point Texas trip.
Interstate authority vs. Texas intrastate authority
Understanding the difference between interstate authority and Texas intrastate authority is integral to understanding what a carrier needs before operating in Texas. The USDOT number and the Texas Department of Motor Vehicles (TxDMV) number serve different purposes:
- USDOT numbers are the carrier’s federal safety identifier and are used to track information such as inspections, crashes, and compliance history; and
- TxDMV numbers and the related Texas registration certificate demonstrate that the carrier is registered with the state to make intrastate movements.
Because the two credentials aren’t interchangeable, a carrier with a USDOT number and federal operating authority may still need to register with the TxDMV. The key question is: Does the carrier perform any regulated movements that both originate and terminate within Texas?
When do you need to register with the TxDMV?
Texas generally requires the following intrastate vehicles and operations to have and display a USDOT number and to register with TxDMV for intrastate authority:
- Private and for-hire vehicles, or combinations of vehicles, with a gross weight or gross weight rating exceeding 26,000 pounds when used to transport cargo in furtherance of a commercial enterprise;
- For-hire vehicles used to transport household goods, regardless of gross weight rating;
- Vehicles, including buses, designed or used to transport more than 15 passengers, including the driver;
- Commercial school buses;
- Vehicles used to transport hazardous materials in a quantity requiring placarding; Vehicles operated by a foreign carrier;
- Foreign-domiciled buses; and/or
- Vehicles owned or controlled by a person who isn’t a U.S. citizen or doesn’t reside in the United States.
Applying for Texas intrastate authority
Application for authority can be completed online. Call (800) 299-1700 to begin the registration process over the phone and obtain a Unique Identifier Number (UIN). Once a UIN has been assigned, use the online Motor Carrier Credentialing System (MCCS) at https://apps.txdmv.gov/apps/mccs/motorcarrier/.
Registration isn’t a one-time administrative task
Once a carrier receives its certificate of registration, it must maintain that status by doing the following:
- Review its principal business address, mailing address, and email address in the department’s online system every 6 months;
- Maintain required insurance filings;
- Keep its vehicle listing current; and
- Retain the insurance cab card at its principal place of business, and make sure the correct copy is carried in each covered vehicle.
Just like at the federal level, changes in vehicle size, passenger capacity, cargo, routes, ownership, or operating status could trigger a fresh review of the carrier’s registration obligations.
Key to remember: Federal authority alone may not be enough when a regulated trip both begins and ends in Texas, even if the carrier performs those trips infrequently. A careful review of a carrier’s operations — and confirmation of TxDMV registration requirements — can help prevent credentialing issues, roadside delays, and avoidable compliance fees.
NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyHours of ServiceHours of ServiceFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishTransportationUSA
2023-05-09T05:00:00Z
What is a false log and when will one result in an out-of-service order?
Recently, the Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) changed the out-of-service criteria related to false logs. However, the change did not affect what constitutes a false log and when a violation for a false log will be written.
What is ‘false’
A false log is a driver’s record of duty status (log), either paper or electronic, that does not truthfully reflect the driver’s activities. Common examples of false logs include:
- An electronic logging device (ELD) log that shows the driver as being logged out while the vehicle is moving,
- A paper log or ELD log that shows the driver using personal conveyance when the reason for the movement is company-related,
- A paper log or ELD log that has duty time logged on the wrong duty line (as in on-duty time logged as off-duty time, sleeper time logged as off-duty time or vice-versa), and
- A paper or ELD log that shows a ghost driver as a co-driver.
In all such cases, the driver will be given a violation for operating with a false log. The next step for the officer will be deciding if the driver is to be placed out of service due to the violation.
The out-of-service decision
To determine if the driver will be placed out of service, the officer will review the requirements in the North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria, published by CVSA. To place the driver out of service, the officer will need to determine the falsification was an attempt to “hide” on-duty hours, and:
- The falsification has taken place since the drivers last 8-hour or 10-hour break (8 hour for passenger-carrying driver, 10 hours for passenger carrying driver), and/or
- The driver is currently over hours once the hidden hours are added into the driver’s on-duty totals.
Therefore, in the case of the driver that logged off-duty rather than sleeper, the driver will not be placed out of service. This is because there was no attempt to hide on-duty hours and when the driver’s hours are recalculated, it will not result in the driver being over an hours limit.
On the other hand, if the driver used personal conveyance after the last 10-hour break, the driver would be placed out of service. This is due to the falsification taking place since the driver’s last 10-hour break.
Finally, if a driver falsified off-duty time three days ago (the time was recorded as off-duty rather than on-duty time) and when the time is changed from off-duty to on-duty the driver is over the 60- or 70-hour limit, the driver will be placed out of service. This would include a driver that incorrectly logged an on-duty activity as off-duty time (such as fueling or loading/unloading) or a driver that incorrectly logged driving time as personal conveyance.
Key to remember: While all incidents of false logs will be cited during a roadside inspection, the decision on placing the driver out of service will be based on the specific situation.
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsCMV InspectionsSpeed limitsAnnual inspections - Motor CarrierTransportationCMV drivingFleet OperationsEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-10-15T05:00:00Z
Safe driving habits are on cruise control: Tickets issued to over half of drivers tested
Of the 8,083 commercial motor vehicle and passenger vehicle drivers tested across North American roadways, 3,968 warnings and 2,604 tickets were issued for unsafe driving behaviors.
Speeding, distracted driving, and aggressive driving were among the leading causes of roadway crashes cited, according to the Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance’s (CVSA’s) 2026 North America safety event findings.
The top unsafe behaviors of 2026 include:
- Reckless, careless, and dangerous driving, which was the focus of this year’s Operation Safe Driver Week: 83 warnings and 33 citations were issued. Broken down by driver type, 50 warnings and 22 citations were issued to commercial motor vehicle drivers, and 33 warnings and 11 citations were issued to passenger vehicle drivers.
- Speeding, which was the most cited behavior: 1,003 warnings and 691 citations were issued. Broken down by driver type, 50 warnings and 22 citations were issued to commercial motor vehicle drivers, and 33 warnings and 11 citations were issued to passenger vehicle drivers.
- Failure to wear a seat belt: 292 warnings and 311 citations were issued. Broken down by driver type, 267 warnings and 270 citations were issued to commercial motor vehicle drivers, and 25 warnings and 41 citations were issued to passenger vehicle drivers.
- Possession, use or impairment of drugs or alcohol: 17 warnings and 26 citations were issued. Broken down by type, 12 warnings and 22 citations were issued to commercial motor vehicle drivers, and 5 warnings and 4 citations were issued to passenger vehicle drivers.
| Other Top Warnings, Citations, and Tickets Issued to CMV Drivers | ||
| Offense | Total # Warnings | Total # Citations |
| Failure to obey traffic control device | 652 | 319 |
| Improper lane change | 76 | 23 |
| Following too closely | 48 | 23 |
| Improper passing | 29 | 10 |
| Improper turn | 12 | 3 |
NewsIndustry NewsHazmat SafetyHazmatIn-Depth ArticleFocus AreaUSAEnglishTransportationHazmat Rulemaking procedures
2023-12-22T06:00:00Z
Navigating change: Key updates to 2024 IATA DGR take effect
Every year the International Air Transport Association (IATA) updates its Dangerous Goods Regulations (DGR) to ensure the safe and secure handling of dangerous goods that are shipped or transported by air. While changes to the 2024 IATA DGR (65th edition) are not as plentiful as they were in previous years, they are no less important.
Mandatory compliance with the 2024 IATA DGR begins on January 1, 2024, and will be valid until the 2025 IATA DGR comes into effect. Let’s look at the key updates, listed by Section, for the 65th edition of the IATA DGR:
Need additional information for IATA? Check out this ezExplanation.
Limitations
- Dangerous Goods Carried by Passengers or Crew (2.3)— Provisions for battery-powered mobility aids have been revised to include reference to the guidance on the end-to-end processes associated with the carriage of mobility aids.
Packing
The following packing instructions have been updated:
- 5.2.0.9 - Added a water capacity limit for non-refillable cylinders containing a flammable gas, limited to a water capacity not exceeding 1.25 L.
- PI 952 - Revised to include reference to "equipment."
- PI 954 - Clarified the rules for marking overpacks containing dry ice. The total net quantity of dry ice in the overpack must be marked on the outside of the overpack.
Packaging specifications and performance tests
- 6.0.3 - Clarified the requirements and formatting for UN specification marks on packages.
Documentation
- 8.1.6.9.2, Step 6 – Added a note to "reinforce that there is no requirement for the type, number and net quantity in inner packagings within the outer packaging of a combination packaging to be shown" on the shipping papers (Shippers Declaration for Dangerous Goods).
Radioactive materials
- 10.8.3.9.1—Added an additional example of the description for the first sequence of information on the Shipper's Declaration to address where a radioactive material has a subsidiary hazard, and the proper shipping name must be supplemented by the technical or chemical name.
- 10.8.6—Added two examples to show how radioactive materials with a subsidiary hazard should be described and how packages in an overpack should be shown.
Appendices
IATA has added a new appendix to the list of appendices in the DGR. Appendix H includes a list of changes IATA will make to the 2025 IATA DGR. IATA added Appendix H so that shippers and carriers have time to prepare for the substantial updates that are coming for 2025. Some of the changes include:
- Adding an exception for data loggers and cargo trackers with installed lithium batteries.
- Modifying the exception for COVID-19 vaccines to now apply to all pharmaceutical products.
- Adding a new classification for sodium ion batteries.
- Updating the list of dangerous goods and special provisions.
- Amending and adding several packing instructions.
- Revising the "lithium battery mark", which will be known as the "battery mark" in the future.
Making sure you are keeping up with these regulatory changes and preparing for future updates is extremely important if you want to avoid costly delays, fines, and lost revenue. Keep your hazmat employees up to speed and inform them of any changes they need to be aware of.
Key to Remember: IATA updates their DGR every year and changes to the 2024 IATA DGR become effective on January 1, 2024.
NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyFederal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTReturn-to-duty drug and alcohol testing - Motor CarrierFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishTransportationFollow-up alcohol and drug testing - Motor CarrierUSA
2023-02-15T06:00:00Z
Do you know when a same-gender observer is required for DOT drug testing?
The Federal Motor Carrier Administration (FMCSA) recently released its 2021 random drug testing positivity rates, which showed a 1.2 percent increase in positive tests over the previous year. With drug violations among drivers on the rise, it’s increasingly likely that carriers will have one or more drivers who are going through the return-to-duty and follow-up testing process.
Return-to-duty and follow-up tests are unlike other test types because they must always be conducted under direct observation, and tests conducted under direct observation must be observed by a person of the same gender as the driver.
Return-to-duty and follow-up tests aren’t the only testing situations for which monitoring or observation is required — and therefore necessitate a person of the same gender be available at the collection site.
When are same-gender observers required?
There are two types of collections that require a person of the same gender: monitored collections and collections performed under direct observation.
Monitored collections are used when the employee being tested must provide the specimen in a multi-stall restroom that cannot be secured, e.g., the water cannot be shut off or soap dispensers can’t be secured. In these instances, the collection must be monitored, meaning that a person of the same gender as the person providing the specimen must be in the bathroom — but not the stall — while the person provides the specimen. The only exception to the same-gender rule in a monitored collection is if the monitor is a medical professional, i.e., an individual licensed or certified to practice in the jurisdiction in which the collection takes place.
In the instance of a direct observation, the person providing the specimen must be observed by someone of the same gender as the urine specimen is collected. If the collector is not the same gender as the individual being tested, then an observer of the same gender may be used. An observer is not required to be a qualified collector.
Collections are performed under direct observation when:
- The test is a return-to-duty or follow-up test,
- The collector observes materials brought to the collection site,
- The employee’s conduct clearly indicates an attempt to tamper with a specimen,
- The temperature on the original specimen is out of range, and
- The original specimen appears to have been tampered with.
Recollections are performed under direct observation when:
- The laboratory reports to the medical review officer (MRO) that a specimen is invalid, and the MRO cannot identify an adequate medical explanation for the result;
- The MRO reports that the original positive, adulterated, or substituted test result had to be cancelled because the test of the split specimen could not be performed; and
- The lab reports to the MRO that the specimen was negative-dilute with a creatinine concentration outside of the normal range.
It’s up to the motor carrier to comply
It’s important that motor carriers understand the situations in which a person of the same gender must be available to monitor or observe a urine collection for a Department of Transportation (DOT) drug test so that the carrier doesn’t inadvertently violate the regulations.
For example, the motor carrier has a male driver who needs to complete six follow-up tests to resolve a DOT drug violation. The carrier notifies the driver to report immediately to the collection site to take the first of the six follow-up tests. Because this is a follow-up test, the collection must be performed under direct observation, but the entire staff at the collection site that day is female. The driver’s follow-up test cannot be performed that day unless arrangements are made to send the driver as soon as possible to a different facility that has a male observer available. If the test is not completed that day, the carrier will have to send the driver on another day, but now the motor carrier is in violation of 40.309(b) of the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs), since the driver is now aware of and has advance notice of the follow-up test.
Be proactive
So, what can a carrier do to ensure a collection site has collectors, monitors, and/or observers of both genders available? Part 40 grants employers the right to conduct site visits to ensure that service agents are compliant with the FMCSRs. If this isn’t something you’ve done in a while — or at all — you may want to take some time to visit your collection site. While there, ask whether the site has employees of both genders available during all of the collection site’s business hours. If not, you may want to consider looking for another collection site.
And when the appointment is made for a test requiring direct observation, the employer should confirm that someone of the same gender as the driver is available at the time of the appointment.
Key to remember: There are certain situations in which a collection site must have someone of the same gender as the person being tested in order to conduct a urine collection, and the employer has the responsibility to confirm someone is available.
Most Popular Highlights In Human Resources
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)USAHR ManagementEnglishFocus AreaHuman Resources
2023-09-06T05:00:00Z
Appellate court sided with employee's (almost) 3-year-delayed FMLA claim
Back in October 2018, Laffon had a medical emergency and needed some time off under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA).
Her leave lasted until November 15. Ten days after she returned to work, on November 26, her employer terminated her.
She sued, arguing that the employer retaliated against her because of her FMLA leave.
The catch? She didn't bring the suit until almost three years later.
No link between leave and termination
In court, the employer argued that there was no causal link between Laffon taking FMLA leave and her termination. Although the court documents aren't robust, they do reveal that the employer indicated that Laffon's allegations didn't show that her taking FMLA leave was a factor in the decision to terminate her. The documents showed only that the termination chronologically followed her leave.
The court agreed with the employer. It also agreed that Laffon failed to allege a willful violation of the FMLA, which would allow her to benefit from the FMLA's three-year statute of limitations.
Laffon appealed the case to the Ninth Circuit.
Statute of limitations
Under the FMLA, employees have two years from the date of the last event constituting the alleged violation for which they can bring a claim.
Those two years are extended to three years if the employer's actions were "willful." This means that an employee must show that the employer either knew or showed reckless disregard for whether its conduct violated the FMLA.
Ruling overturned
Fast forward to August 2023, when the Ninth Circuit reversed the lower court's decision. It indicated that, based on Laffon's amended complaint and liberally construing the law, her allegations establish that her leave was causally connected to her termination and that the employer's action (her termination) was willful.
Glymph v. CT Corporation Systems, No. 22-35735, Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals, August 22, 2023.
Key to remember: Terminating an employee soon after returning from FMLA leave is risky, unless there is a clear, well-documented, non-leave-related reason. Case documents did not show such a clear reason, which can also increase the risk of a willful finding. Employees have time to file claims, even years.
NewsIndustry NewsHuman ResourcesHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Focus AreaIn-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Associate RelationsEnglishUSAHR ManagementDisabilities and ADADisabilities and ADAReasonable Accommodations
2026-10-13T05:00:00Z
Is providing an accommodation instead of FMLA leave okay? The law says, “No.”
Eligible employees may take leave for qualifying reasons under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA). But may an employer require an employee to accept a workplace accommodation instead of taking FMLA leave? What if the absence creates a hardship for the employer?
The answer is likely no.
Under FMLA regulations at 825.702(d), if an employee is entitled to FMLA leave, the employer may not require the employee to take a job with a reasonable accommodation in place of that leave.
In other words, an employer generally may not deny FMLA leave and require the employee to keep working in a modified job, even if the employer offers similar pay and benefits or adjusts the job so the employee can perform its essential functions.
Is there an exception?
There’s a limited exception for certain intermittent or reduced schedule leaves. If the need for leave is foreseeable because of planned medical treatment, or if the employer agrees to intermittent or reduced schedule leave for bonding with a healthy child, the employer may temporarily transfer the employee to an available alternative position. The employee must be qualified for the position, however, and the position must better accommodate the recurring leave than the employee’s regular job.
This exception doesn’t apply when the leave is unforeseeable, such as during episodic flare-ups related to a chronic condition.
When the employee requests a different arrangement
The FMLA doesn’t prohibit employers from agreeing to an employee’s request for a different shift, schedule, or position when the employee returns from leave. However, employers may not pressure or require the employee to accept a different position against the employee’s wishes.
Applies to any accommodation
This rule applies to any workplace accommodation. For example, in lieu of leave, an employer may not require an employee to:
- Work from home,
- Use modified equipment, or
- Accept changes to a workstation.
No undue hardship defense under the FMLA
Unlike the federal Americans with Disabilities Act, the FMLA doesn’t include an undue hardship defense. This means that employers may not deny FMLA leave because the employee’s absence creates staffing challenges, affects productivity, or burdens a department.
Key to remember: If an employee is entitled to FMLA leave, the employer may not require the employee to accept an accommodation instead of taking that leave.
NewsWage and HourChange NoticesChange NoticeWage and HourAssociate Benefits & CompensationHR GeneralistMinimum WageFocus AreaHR ManagementEnglishSouth DakotaAssociate RelationsHuman Resources
2026-10-19T05:00:00Z
South Dakota minimum wage to increase
Effective date: January 1, 2027
This applies to: Employers with employees in South Dakota
Description of change: Effective January 1, 2027, the South Dakota minimum wage will increase from $11.85 to $12.30 per hour. The minimum wage for tipped employees will increase from $5.95 to $6.15 per hour on that date, as well.
View related state info: Minimum wage – South Dakota
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsWage and HourWage and HourAssociate Benefits & CompensationAssociate RelationsHR GeneralistFair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)OvertimeHR ManagementEnglishFocus AreaHuman ResourcesUSA
2026-05-21T05:00:00Z
Federal overtime threshold rule gone, for now
On May 15, members of Congress introduced a bill that would gradually increase the overtime salary threshold for determining whether employees may be classified as exempt under the federal Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA).
This news came on the heels of the U.S. Department of Labor's official rescission of the 2024 rule that increased the threshold. That rule was challenged in federal court, and employers didn’t have to comply with it since it was vacated in November 2024.
Employers may now comfortably continue to follow the 2019 rule, where the minimum salary threshold is $684 per week ($35,568 per year) for executive, administrative, and professional employees, and $107,432 for highly compensated employees.
Potential future increases
The bill, The Restoring Overtime Pay Act of 2026 (HR 8868), would increase the federal minimum salary level as follows:
- 2026 — $45,000
- 2027 — $55,000
- 2028 — $65,000
- 2029 — $75,000
- 2030 — 55th percentile of full-time salaried workers nationally*, updated annually
*The current 55th percentile of full-time salaried workers nationally is $89,440 and could increase to $98,000 by 2030.
The measure would allow the Secretary of Labor to establish a higher salary threshold through notice and comment rulemaking, as long as it can be updated annually.
The bill would also require the following:
- The Secretary of Labor would need to provide annual, automatic updates to the overtime threshold of at least the 55th percentile of weekly earnings of full-time salaried workers.
- If the Secretary doesn’t establish an increased salary threshold, the 55th percentile of weekly earnings of full-time salaried workers nationally would take effect, based on the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) from the second quarter of the preceding calendar year.
- The Secretary would need to publish a notice announcing the revised salary threshold no later than 60 days before the revised threshold takes effect.
- The BLS would need to publicly publish data on its website for each week of each quarter and data on weekly earnings by census region.
The bill is in the first stage of the legislative process. It was referred to the House Committee on Education and Workforce. While it has a small chance of being enacted at this time, it does show that some members of Congress are interested in this topic.
Key to remember: Congress members introduced a bill increasing the federal salary threshold level. But for now, employers can use the 2019 federal salary threshold to determine whether they may classify an employee as exempt.
NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementEnglishUSAFocus AreaHuman Resources
2024-05-07T05:00:00Z
May employees take FMLA leave to care for family members outside the U.S.?
Yes, employees may take leave under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) to care for family members who are outside U.S. borders.
If the employee meets the eligibility criteria of the FMLA, the family member has an FMLA serious health condition, and the employee is needed to care for the family member, the employee’s time off would be protected. It doesn’t really matter where the family member is.
To figure out whether the family member’s condition meets the criteria under the FMLA, employers may require that the employee provide a certification supporting the leave.
Certifications in other languages
If an employee or a family member is visiting in another country, or a family member lives in another country, and a serious health condition develops, employers must accept a medical certification from a health care provider who practices in that country. This rule applies to an original certification, a recertification, and when requesting a second or third opinion from a provider.
If a certification by a health care provider from another country is in a language other than English, employers may require that the employee provide a written translation of the certification.
Traveling to care for family member
If family members are outside the U.S., employees will need to spend some time traveling. The employee’s travel time would likely be seen as part of the FMLA leave if:
- The travel is so intertwined with the care, or
- If it is needed to obtain the care.
Handling intermittent leave
Employees may also take intermittent FMLA leave to care for far-away family members. Employers would manage such leave the same way they do for intermittent leave inside the U.S. Employers should:
- Give the employee an eligibility/rights & responsibilities notice within five days of being put on notice,
- Ask for a certification if desired (including a translation),
- Give the employee a designation notice within five days of getting enough information, and
- Track the employee’s leave time.
Whenever employees are away from the physical worksite, tracking how much intermittent FMLA leave they are taking has its own challenges. Employers may use a simple honor system of self-reporting or technology to keep track of when the employee is taking FMLA leave and when the employee is working.
Key to remember: Eligible employees may take FMLA leave to care for family members who are outside the U.S.
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsAssociate Benefits & CompensationAssociate RelationsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementEnglishFocus AreaHuman ResourcesUSA
2026-10-14T05:00:00Z
HR manager didn’t follow company policy for his own FMLA leave, and got terminated for it
In early 2023, Frank, an HR manager, suffered from severe right shoulder arthritis. Starting on February 21, he decided to take leave under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) to manage his health issues, eventually opting for surgery.
The employer’s policy indicated that requests for FMLA leave be made through the HR Department on the forms provided. The forms required employees to provide a medical certification to support the absence.
When Frank first asked for leave, he didn’t submit a medical certification. He argued that delayed submission of such paperwork was, nonetheless, consistent with the employer’s customary practice. During his tenure as HR manager, he would also retroactively approve FMLA leave for employees who began their leave before filling out the required paperwork.
On March 9, Debra, a company director, sent Frank a letter reminding him to submit the medical certification by March 17. When Frank failed to do so, Debra sent him a second, third, and fourth reminder, extending the deadline each time. In the last two letters, she warned Frank that failure to comply with the company leave policies could result in his termination.
Frank didn’t submit a certification until May 4. It excused his absence beginning May 2, but didn’t address his absences from February 21 to May 1. He never provided documentation covering the prior absences or a reason for them.
On July 7, before he could return to work, the employer informed Frank that his employment was terminated. The termination letter cited his “failure to provide the healthcare certifications required” by company policies, which resulted in his incurring “multiple unexcused absences in violation of the” company’s personnel code.
Frank sued, but the court sided with the employer, despite the suspicious timing of the termination. It first noted that when an employee takes leave without complying with the employer’s internal leave policies, they haven’t “engaged in any activity protected by the FMLA.” Also, since Frank failed to provide a certification supporting his leave from February 21 to May 1, the FMLA didn’t cover his time off, and he didn’t engage in FMLA-protected activity.
Bergman v. St. Clair County, Southern District of Illinois, No. 3:24-CV-02374, September 23, 2026.
Key to remember: If an employee fails to provide a requested FMLA certification without justification, employers may deny FMLA protections.
Court decisions are based on the specific facts presented and each court’s interpretation of the law. Because courts may reach different conclusions, similar situations can lead to different outcomes. Employers should avoid relying on a single case as definitive guidance and instead assess each situation carefully, considering applicable laws, and seeking advice when needed.
Most Popular Highlights In Safety & Health
NewsEmergency Planning - OSHAIndustry NewsSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyEmergency PreparednessGeneral Industry SafetyIn-Depth ArticleEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-10-09T05:00:00Z
How well do first responders know your facility?
Organizations spend a lot of time and resources preparing for emergencies. Local fire departments, EMS providers, and hazmat teams do too. But here’s a question that isn’t asked very often: How much preparation have they done together?
When a serious incident occurs, organizations often rely on outside responders to help protect employees, property, and the surrounding community. These responders bring valuable expertise and resources, but they may not know the facility, its hazards, or its operations as well as the people who work there every day.
That's why emergency preparedness should be viewed as a partnership, not a handoff. The strongest emergency responses occur when organizations and first responders build relationships, share information, and understand each other's expectations long before an incident occurs.
Build the relationship before it's needed
The best time for organizations to meet with local responders isn’t during an emergency. Facility tours, pre-incident planning meetings, and joint exercises allow both sides to learn from one another. Responders can become familiar with facility layouts, hazards, and access procedures. Facility personnel can better understand responder capabilities, equipment, and response expectations.
These conversations also help identify potential issues before they become problems. Questions about after-hours access, communication protocols, command structure, specialized hazards, or monitoring capabilities are much easier to answer during a planning meeting than during an active emergency.
Perhaps most importantly, these interactions build trust and familiarity, both of which can improve communication when pressure is high.
Why familiarity matters
When responders arrive, they often need information quickly to make critical decisions. The more they know beforehand, the more effectively they can respond. During an emergency, responders don't have time to learn the facility from scratch.
Consider some of the questions they may need answered:
- Are there gates, badge-controlled doors, or other security measures?
- Are there any areas with restricted access?
- What hazardous materials are onsite, and where are they located?
- Which utilities, fire department connections (FDCs), or processes may need to be shut down?
- Who has authority to make decisions during the incident?
- Which employees have specialized knowledge of equipment, chemicals, or operations?
- How can responders access the facility after normal business hours?
Without those answers, valuable time can be spent gathering information instead of managing the emergency.
The relationship goes both ways
Organizations sometimes assume responders have every resource they might need. In reality, responder capabilities can vary by jurisdiction, equipment availability, and specialized training.
For example, a local department may have standard atmospheric monitoring equipment but may not carry instruments designed to detect every chemical present at a facility. Certain incidents may require additional resources, technical expertise, or support from a regional hazmat team.
Understanding those capabilities and limitations before an emergency occurs helps both organizations and responders establish realistic expectations, identify resource gaps, and avoid surprises when an incident occurs.
Don't rely on paperwork alone
Many organizations already share hazard information through regulatory programs. Facilities subject to EPCRA requirements may provide chemical inventory information that helps emergency planners understand potential community hazards, but that information doesn't replace direct conversations and site familiarity.
Responders also benefit from information such as facility maps, building access points, utility shutoff locations, hazardous material storage areas, emergency contacts, and site-specific response considerations.
Responders don't need every document an organization has ever produced. What helps most is having key information organized, accessible, and available before an emergency occurs.
Strengthen the partnership
To strengthen relationships with local emergency responders:
- Arrange facility tours to familiarize responders with the site;
- Review emergency plans, major hazards, and available resources together;
- Confirm after-hours access procedures;
- Identify primary and backup emergency contacts;
- Provide updates when processes, layouts, or chemical inventories change; and
- Conduct joint drills or exercises.
Key to remember: First responders shouldn't be learning about a facility during an emergency. The best emergency responses are built on relationships, communication, and shared understanding long before 911 is called.
NewsExcavation Hazard IdentificationIndustry NewsExcavationsSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyExcavationsExpert InsightsEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-10-15T05:00:00Z
Expert Insights: Trench Safety by the Numbers
When I started working in construction safety, my colleague and I loved to challenge each other with safety questions to keep on top of our game amidst a dynamic construction world. Remembering safety rules is critical, but can be overwhelming, when it comes to excavation and trenches for example. Things such as when a protection system is required, when an egress method is necessary, or at what point a professional engineer needs to get involved come to mind. So, we came up with a little quiz called Excavation Safety by the Numbers to help refresh the what, where, and when of excavations. Here are some common numbers by the foot: 2, 4, 5, 6, 20, and 25.
2 Feet
There are two circumstances where the number 2 comes into play.
- Spoil piles must be at least 2 feet from the edge of an excavation or trench provided the surface is able to support such a load.
- If using a trench box or other engineered protection system, the bottom of the protection system cannot be more than 2 feet above the bottom of the trench or excavation.
4 Feet with 25 feet
Four feet is the trench or excavation depth that triggers the requirement to have a means of egress such as a ladder. Depending on the length of the trench/excavation, the maximum travel distance to or between egress points is 25 feet.
5 Feet
A protective system is required for trenches and excavations 5 feet deep or deeper unless a competent person determines the excavation is entirely in stable rock.
6 Feet
If employees are working near the edge of a trench/excavation with a depth of 6 feet or more, then fall protection/prevention is required.
20 Feet
If the depth of a trench/excavation is greater than 20 feet, then the protective system must be designed and approved by a professional engineer. While this number quiz does not encompass every aspect of trench/excavation safety, it may help reinforce key concepts before the first scoop of soil is moved. Remember to follow specific jobsite requirements for each trench and excavation.
NewsIndustry NewsEnforcement and Audits - OSHAOSHA InspectionsSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyIn-Depth ArticleEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-10-12T05:00:00Z
DOL report spotlights OSHA small employer, low-hazard industry inspections
A new report brings attention to OSHA inspections of small employers in low-hazard industries. In a September 24 alert memorandum to OSHA assistant secretary David Keeling, the Department of Labor (DOL) Office of Inspector General (OIG) states its “urgent concern” that OSHA may have conducted impermissible inspections of small employers in low-risk industries and therefore may not have complied with the agency’s authorized appropriations acts.
The memo explains that an OIG investigation identified 481 inspections that the Inspector General says warrant further review by OSHA.
Hotline complaint leads to investigation, report
The OIG’s investigation stemmed from a September 2025 hotline complaint alleging OSHA had performed a planned program inspection on the complainant earlier that year even though the complainant’s business was allegedly exempted by OSHA’s appropriations rider. A recurring congressional appropriations rider generally prohibits OSHA from using appropriated funds for enforcement activities involving employers that have 10 or fewer employees and operate in designated low-hazard industries. However, the agency can still inspect an otherwise-exempt employer in certain circumstances, including:
- Health hazards;
- Fatalities, or hospitalizations of two or more employees;
- Imminent danger; and
- Complaints from current employees.
In response to the complaint, the Inspector General reviewed OSHA Information System (OIS) inspection data from November 8, 2024, through January 21, 2026. (The review did not include supporting case files.) The analysis found OSHA initiated and closed 621 inspections that met the exemption criteria. Of those, the report says 140 clearly involved a permissible exception, while:
- 201 had insufficient OIS data demonstrating an exception applied, and
- 280 had no permissible exceptions supported by OIS data.
These issues, the OIG states, may have stemmed from control weaknesses in OSHA guidance and issues with data reliability: “Therefore, OSHA may have conducted 481 impermissible inspections that did not comply with its appropriations acts.”
Following a preliminary review of 27 case files, OSHA found four that did not meet any exceptions allowed under its appropriations acts. The agency also found coding errors with the other 23 inspections. OSHA officials indicated the overall issue was likely due to coding errors rather than impermissible inspections and stated it would need to perform an in-depth review of case files to confirm. The Inspector General noted that this raises concerns about overall data reliability and that both issues (i.e., coding errors, impermissible inspections) warrant immediate attention from agency management.
OSHA pushes back on findings
In response to a draft of the September 24 memo, OSHA officials disagreed with the findings, citing the Inspector General’s lack of familiarity with the OIS and its data fields and its limited review of the inspection information for each inspector or investigation as the reason for its “unsupported conclusions.” The agency also argued that the OIG did not adequately account for OSHA’s procedures, management reviews, or the fact that inspectors sometimes need to begin an investigation to determine whether the exemption or an exception applies.
OIG recommendations to OSHA and DOL
The Inspector General stated that, ultimately, OSHA’s response did not change the OIG’s conclusion, and four recommendations were made to OSHA:
- Review all 481 identified inspections to determine whether they complied with the appropriations acts and take appropriate action based on the results.
- Establish adequate controls to prevent impermissible inspections and to document permissible exceptions in both the OIS and case files.
- Update guidance to specify which employee-related field to use when determining if enforcement exemptions and limitations apply under OSHA’s appropriations acts.
- Improve OIS data accuracy through data-entry controls and validation against case-file documentation.
The Inspector General also recommended that the Secretary of Labor conduct an investigation to determine whether OSHA failed to comply with the Antideficiency Act. The OIG noted that if the DOL ultimately determines that a violation occurred, federal law requires reporting to the President and Congress, with a copy provided to the Comptroller General.
OSHA’s consideration of the recommendations is ongoing, and the OIG says it looks forward to continuing its work with OSHA “to ensure planned corrective actions meet the intent of our proposed recommendations.” It should be noted that the Inspector General did not audit supporting case file documentation and therefore drew no conclusions on whether OSHA complied with its appropriations acts.
Key to remember: A DOL OIG investigation found that OSHA may have conducted certain small employer inspections that did not comply with its appropriations acts. OSHA disputes the findings, and its review of the cases and the OIG’s recommendations is ongoing. For employers, the Inspector General’s report is a reminder that some small employers in low-hazard industries may be subject to special limits on OSHA enforcement.
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthHand and Other Portable Powered ToolsGeneral Industry SafetyTool SafetyAir Compressor SystemsIn-Depth ArticleTool SafetyEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2022-06-13T05:00:00Z
Cleaning with compressed air: Making sense of the OSHA regulation
It is a common sight in many workplaces to see employees using compressed air to clean parts, equipment, and even clothing. What many workers and some employers do not realize is that compressed air can be deadly. That is why OSHA has a regulation prohibiting the use of compressed air for cleaning unless the dead-end pressure is reduced to below 30 psi, and then only with effective chip guarding and PPE.
The regulation Federal OSHA’s requirement for cleaning with compressed air is in 1910.242(b):
- “Compressed air used for cleaning. Compressed air shall not be used for cleaning purposes except where reduced to less than 30 psi and then only with effective chip guarding and personal protective equipment.” Because the regulation is short and somewhat vague, OSHA has clarified the issue in a compliance directive and letters of interpretation.
What is “chip guarding”?
“Effective chip guarding” means any method or equipment which will prevent a chip or particle (of whatever size) from being blown into the eyes or unbroken skin of the operator or other workers.
Effective chip guarding may be separate from the air nozzle as in the case where screens or barriers are used. The use of protective cone air nozzles are acceptable in general for protection of the operator, but barriers, baffles or screens may be required to protect other workers if they are exposed to flying chips or particles.
What about the psi requirement?
The regulation requires the psi at the nozzle to be less than 30 when using compressed air for cleaning.
However, OSHA has said in interpretive guidance that the use of compressed air for cleaning purposes at pressures at or greater than 30 psi is permissible if the outlet or source is fitted with a relief device or air ports that drop the pressure to less than 30 psi if the flow is dead-ended.
What about cleaning clothing/bodies?
While the regulation does not specifically address the issue, in a letter of interpretation OSHA said that employers should not allow employees to use compressed air for cleaning themselves or their clothing in general industry situations. The eyes and other body parts, such as the respiratory system, may be damaged as the result of inadequate personal protective equipment, lack of chip guards, and/or uncontrolled release of compressed air.
The dangers
There are numerous dangers of improperly using compressed air:
- Embolism: If compressed air enters the bloodstream through a body opening or skin break, it can create an embolism (air bubble) that can be life threatening.
- Eye damage: Particles that are being blown can “blow back” and strike the eyes. The air itself can also cause injury if it is pointed toward the eyes.
- Hearing loss: Some compressed air equipment can be loud enough to damage hearing. Always wear proper PPE.
- Combustible dust: If compressed air is used to blow certain dusts, it can create a suspension in the air that could ignite if there is an ignition source.
- Respiratory: Particles or air can enter the respiratory system, posing deadly hazards.
- Whips: If not properly secured, hoses can whip and cause severe injury.
Workers must be trained that even extremely low pressures, such as 5 or 10 psi, can still cause severe damage if pointed toward the body, particularly the mouth, eyes, ears, or open areas in the skin.
Employers should train employees on the dangers of compressed air, and ensure the equipment is equipped with the necessary safety features and is properly maintained.
Supervisors should watch for improper use, particularly horseplay, and initiate corrective action. In addition, for many applications, a broom or shop vacuum may be just as effective at cleaning, and much safer. Compressed air may seem harmless, but if strict safeguards and practices are not utilized it can be deadly.
NewsTraining & DevelopmentLeaveTime offIn-Depth ArticleHR ManagementLeaveEnglishUSAAssociate Benefits & CompensationIndustry NewsWorkplace ViolenceWorkplace ViolenceSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyHR GeneralistAssociate RelationsFocus AreaHuman Resources
2026-10-05T05:00:00Z
Domestic violence and the workplace — What role do employers play?
October is Domestic Violence Awareness Month. Throughout this month, events will be held to raise awareness about domestic violence and its impact on individuals, families, communities, and workplaces.
Employers can make a positive impact
Many cases of workplace violence are committed by people who have a personal relationship with the victim. When the perpetrator is an employee’s spouse or domestic partner, they could bring conflicts from home to the workplace. When a victim leaves an abusive situation, the one place the abuser knows the victim will be every day is at work. That’s why domestic violence presents a unique set of challenges for employers, supervisors, and company security staff.
When survivors of domestic violence don't know their workplace rights, and employers aren't familiar with the protections that exist, everyone can be left more vulnerable.
Research from Futures Without Violence shows that this knowledge gap is significant. In a 2025 survey, 53 percent of survivors said they chose not to disclose abuse to their employer because they feared discrimination, retaliation, or losing their job. Additionally, 71 percent said they didn’t know whether their local or state laws offered employment protections for workers experiencing domestic violence, dating violence, sexual assault, or stalking.
Time off
Federal law doesn’t currently require or regulate vacation pay, holiday pay, or other paid time off (PTO). Some states and cities, however, have adopted laws for paid sick leave or other PTO.
While there’s no current federal law that requires a company to provide paid vacation, it may be required to provide other types of leave, whether paid or unpaid, in certain situations. Several states require paid sick leave, and several others require unpaid but job-protected leave for victims of domestic violence.
Virginia, for example, has a new paid sick leave law that takes effect on July 1, 2027. This law specifies that employees may take paid time off related to domestic violence, sexual assault, or stalking of the employee or family member, among other leave reasons.
What else can employers do?
Aside from complying with requirements under state or local laws, employers could consider implementing company training — similar to sexual harassment prevention training — to educate workers on what domestic violence is and how the company can support victims.
This could be done by:
- Promoting a company’s employee assistance program,
- Connecting employees with community resources, or
- Allowing employees flexibility with their schedules to attend court hearings or deal with other related issues.
Employers can also encourage victims to come forward to HR or their supervisors. That way those working at the front desk can keep an eye out for the perpetrator and/or prohibit them from entering the building. An employer could also have the perpetrator’s calls blocked, or reach out to local law enforcement for additional support if needed.
Shining a light on domestic violence and encouraging employees to share concerns with employers can help protect everyone.
Key to remember: October is Domestic Violence Awareness Month. Employers can support employees who are being victimized and create safer workplaces for all.
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyMaritime SafetyOccupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), DOLIn-Depth ArticleHazard CommunicationHazard CommunicationEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-09-17T05:00:00Z
Heads up! HazCom employer compliance deadline approaching fast
OSHA’s revised Hazard Communication (HazCom) standard contains multiple compliance dates at 29 CFR 1910.1200 paragraph (j) for chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, and employers. In fact, the next compliance date is for employers, and it’s just over two months away! The November 20, 2026, employer deadline is driven by changes to chemical hazard classifications for aerosols, desensitized explosives, and flammable gases.
Reclassification impacts downstream chemical users
According to 1910.1200(j), chemical manufacturers, importers, and distributors evaluating substances (see the definition in 1910.1200(c)) based on the new classifications had until May 19, 2026, to:
- Reclassify the substances under revised criteria,
- Update their safety data sheets (SDSs) and shipping labels for these substances, and
- Otherwise be in compliance with all the modified provisions of the standard for those substances.
Hazard classification is the process of identifying a chemical’s hazards and determining how severe those hazards are. Chemical manufacturers and importers use 1910.1200(d), along with Appendix A (for health hazards) and Appendix B (for physical hazards) to make these determinations. When OSHA aligned HazCom with Revision 7 of the Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS) in 2024, the agency revised its classification categories for aerosols, desensitized explosives, and flammable gases.
Once a classification is determined, it dictates the warnings, pictograms, hazard statements, and other safety and health information that must appear on SDSs and shipping labels. OSHA explains that the classification should provide downstream users with sufficient information to perform a hazard assessment specific to their own workplace and to understand how employees must use the chemical product there.
How the November 20 deadline impacts employers
Employers who purchase substances that are aerosols, desensitized explosives, and flammable gases will receive (or may already have received) revised SDSs and see updated container labels with their shipments.
In addition, according to 1910.1200(j), all employers must, as necessary:
- Update any alternative workplace (in-house) labeling per 1910.1200(f)(6);
- Update their HazCom training program required by 1910.1200(h)(1); and
- Provide additional employee training in line with 1910.1200(h)(3) for newly identified physical, health, or other hazards covered by the standard.
Employers will also need to retain any new SDSs they receive. However, if they have not purchased new inventory, they’re not required to contact the manufacturer, importer, or distributor for a new SDS. Still, an employer may proactively request new ones from their suppliers anyway.
Further HazCom compliance dates in paragraph (j)
Chemical manufacturers, importers, and distributors evaluating mixtures (as defined in 1910.1200(c)) based on the new classifications have until November 19, 2027, to reclassify them based on the new criteria, update their SDSs and shipping labels, and otherwise be in compliance with all the modified provisions of the standard for those mixtures.
Also, for mixtures, employers have until May 19, 2028, to update any alternative workplace labeling, update their HazCom training program, and provide additional employee training for newly identified physical, health, or other hazards.
Key to remember: OSHA paragraph (j) to 1910.1200 has several compliance dates for chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, and employers. One date has already passed, and the next one (November 20, 2026) applies to employers. Two more are slated for November 19, 2027, and May 19, 2028.
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