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NewsFleet SafetyPipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTOffice of the Secretary of TransportationHazmat SafetyRulemakingFocus AreaProposed RuleEnglishTransportationUSA
89 FR 82957 Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
2024-10-15T05:00:00Z
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Office of the Secretary
49 CFR Part 40
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
49 CFR Part 199
[Docket DOT-OST-2022-0027]
RIN 2105-AF01
Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
AGENCY: Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
SUMMARY: The Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) proposes to amend its regulations for conducting workplace drug and alcohol testing for the federally regulated transportation industry to allow, but not require, electronic signatures on documents required to be created and utilized under the regulations, the use of electronic versions of forms, and the electronic storage of forms and data. The regulatory changes would apply to DOT-regulated employers and their contractors (“service agents”) who administer their DOT-regulated drug and alcohol testing programs. Currently, employers and their service agents must use, sign and store paper documents exclusively, unless the employer is utilizing a laboratory's electronic Federal Drug Testing Custody and Control Form (electronic CCF) system that has been approved by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). DOT is required by statute to amend its regulations to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms. This rulemaking also responds to an April 2, 2020, petition for rulemaking from DISA Global Solutions, Inc. (DISA), requesting that DOT regulations be amended to allow the use of an electronic version of the alcohol testing form (ATF) for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. The proposed regulatory amendments are expected to provide additional flexibility and reduced costs for the industry while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the drug and alcohol testing regulations. In addition, DOT proposes to amend the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) regulation for conformity and to make other miscellaneous technical changes and corrections.
DATES: Comments on this NPRM must be received on or before December 16, 2024.
ADDRESSES: You may submit comments identified by Docket Number DOT-OST-2022-0027 using any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
• Mail: Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
• Hand Delivery or Courier: West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION section for instructions on submitting comments, including collection of information comments for the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Mike Huntley, Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590; telephone number 202-366-3784; ODAPCwebmail@dot.gov. If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
This NPRM is organized as follows:
I. Executive Summary
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
C. Privacy Act
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
IV. Background
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
VIII. Electronic ATF
IX. Section-by-Section Analysis
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
I. Executive Summary
Purpose and Summary of the Major Provisions
This proposed rule would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures and expand businesses' and individuals' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the Department's drug and alcohol testing regulation, 49 CFR part 40, “Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs” (part 40). Businesses and individuals subject to part 40 would continue to have the choice to use paper documents and traditional “wet” signatures. This proposed rule would also modify references to recordkeeping and reporting methods throughout part 40 to make them technologically neutral.
This proposed rulemaking responds to a statutory mandate set forth in section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271 (see 49 U.S.C. 322 note). The proposed rulemaking would take action consistent with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA) (division C, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, Pub. L. 105-277) and the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN) (Pub. L. 106-229) with regard to DOT's part 40 regulations.
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this NPRM (Docket No. DOT-OST-2022-0027), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. The Office of the Secretary (OST) recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in a cover letter or an email so that OST can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document, click on this NPRM, click “Comment,” and type your comment into the text box on the following screen.
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8 1/2 by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit comments by mail and would like to know that they reached the facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope.
OST will consider all comments and material received during the comment period in determining how to proceed with any final rule.
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as available in the docket, go to https://www.regulations.gov. Insert the docket number, DOT-OST-2022-0027, in the keyword box, and click “Search.” Next, click the “Open Docket Folder” button and choose the document to review. If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting the Docket Management Facility in Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting the Docket Management Facility.
C. Privacy Act
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to www.regulations.gov, as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices under the heading of “Department-Wide System of Records Notices”.
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority enacted in the Omnibus Transportation Employee Testing Act of 1991 (OTETA) (Pub. L. 102-143, tit. V, 105 Stat. 952) and codified at 49 U.S.C. 45102 (aviation), 49 U.S.C. 20140 (rail), 49 U.S.C. 31306 (motor carrier), and 49 U.S.C. 5331 (public transportation), as well as the Department's authority in 49 U.S.C. 322 and the PHMSA authorities specified in the proposed regulatory text for this action.
According to Public Law 115-271, the Secretary of Transportation is required to “issue a final rule revising part 40 of title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms.” (49 U.S.C. 322 note) The statute set the deadline for this action as not later than 18 months after HHS establishes a deadline for a certified laboratory to request approval for fully electronic CCFs ( Id. ) On April 7, 2022, HHS set that deadline as August 31, 2023 (87 FR 20528). HHS has extended the deadline to August 31, 2026, to enable sufficient time for all HHS-certified laboratories to identify and contract with an electronic CCF supplier or to develop an electronic CCF. The deadline for DOT's regulatory amendments would therefore be February 29, 2028.
There are two additional Federal statutes relevant to the implementation of electronic document and signature requirements.
The Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA), codified at 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 1 was enacted to improve customer service and governmental efficiency through the use of information technology. The GPEA defines an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (a) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (b) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. Id. It also requires OMB to ensure Federal agencies provide for: (a) the option of maintaining, submitting; or disclosing information electronically, when practicable; and (b) the use and acceptance of electronic signatures when practicable. The GPEA states that electronic records submitted pursuant to procedures developed under title XVII for the submission of records to Federal agencies and electronic signatures used in accordance with those procedures shall not be denied legal effect, validity, or enforceability merely because they are in electronic form. Id.
1 Division C, title XVII (sec. 1701-1710) of Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681-749, enacted on October 21, 1998.
The Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN), codified at 15 U.S.C. 7001-7031, 2 was designed to promote the use of electronic contract formation, signatures, and recordkeeping in private commerce by establishing legal equivalence between traditional paper-based methods and electronic methods. The E-SIGN Act allows the use of electronic records to satisfy any statute, regulation, or rule of law requiring that such information be provided in writing if the consumer has affirmatively consented to such use and has not withdrawn consent. Specifically, the statute establishes the legal equivalence of the following types of documents with respect to any transaction in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, whether in traditional paper or electronic form: (a) contracts, (b) signatures, and (c) other records (15 U.S.C. 7001(a)(1)).
2 Public Law 106-229, 114 Stat. 464, enacted on June 30, 2000.
IV. Background
The Department's drug and alcohol testing regulations were promulgated at a time when the ability to sign and retain official records electronically—now commonplace in many business segments—was not available. Over the course of several years, we have adopted measures that have reduced the paper documentation associated with the drug and alcohol testing program without compromising the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program. In 2003, we standardized the form for employers to report their Management Information System (MIS) aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected. 3 When creating a ONE-DOT MIS Form, we then authorized employers to submit a single standardized form via a web portal. In 2015, we issued a final rule to allow employers, collectors, laboratories, and medical review officers (MROs) to use the electronic version of the Federal Drug Testing CCF in the DOT-regulated drug testing program. 4 That final rule also incorporated into the regulations the requirement to establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons when using the electronic CCF. We also included language protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form when using the electronic CCF.
3 68 FR 43946 (July 25, 2003).
4 80 FR 19551 (Apr. 13, 2015).
Consistent with the statutory mandate in 49 U.S.C. 322 note, we propose amendments to part 40 to permit the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for drug and alcohol testing records throughout the regulation, including the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. We emphasize that electronic signatures, forms, and records would not be required; we would continue to allow paper, or hard-copy use with traditional “wet signatures.”
These proposed amendments would establish parity between paper and electronic collection and submission of information required under our regulations (and remain compatible with applicable OMB guidance on implementing electronic signatures 5 ) by allowing further use of electronic means and methods to comply with part 40 requirements. Many employers and their service agents have already instituted the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for the non-DOT regulated testing that they conduct. DOT supports this transition to a paperless system and is committed to ensuring that the movement to a partially or fully electronic part 40 is done to maximize program efficiencies and reduce costs, while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program.
5https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/2000-M-00-15-OMB-Guidance-on-Implementing-the-Electronic-Signatures-in-Global-and-National-Commerce-Act.pdf.
Electronic documents would have a high degree of forensic defensibility as long as any changes made to the document are in the document's electronic footprint, which shows when the document or signature, as applicable, was created; when, and if, changes were made; who made the changes; and when, as applicable, a document was transmitted to and received by the receiving entity. The use of electronic forms and signatures in part 40 would help DOT-regulated employers and their service agents improve their workflow efficiency through faster turnaround times for required documents. Cost savings would result through reduced printing and delivery/shipping costs, and expedited transmission of information allowing for more timely decisions. We believe this proposed rule, if adopted, would also mitigate the longstanding problems ( e.g., delays in processing times of test results, cancelling of test results, etc.) associated with illegible and lost copies of paper documents.
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
On August 5, 2022, we published an ANPRM requesting public comment on how part 40 could be amended, as required by the statute, to allow electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping (87 FR 47951). We requested information from DOT-regulated employers and their service agents regarding if and how they are already handling electronic signatures, records transmission, and records storage in their non-DOT testing programs. In addition, we requested comments and information on appropriate performance standards, and on whether particular methods or performance standards have been successful or unsuccessful. We also asked a number of general questions on the potential advantages, risks, ramifications, and required safeguards associated with the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records in the DOT drug and alcohol testing program. We asked questions about specific sections of part 40 that we anticipated would be affected by prospective changes to implement electronic signatures, forms, and records. Finally, we asked a number of questions regarding the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol tests.
We received 72 comments in response to the ANPRM, including comments from individuals, testing laboratories, MROs, and MRO organizations, substance abuse professionals (SAP) and SAP organizations, and various associations representing DOT-regulated transportation workers subject to mandatory drug and alcohol testing under part 40.
A few individuals expressed opposition to the adoption of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, citing concerns about the need for the rulemaking, risk to personal information from hackers or mismanaged electronic processes and procedures, and misuse of electronic forms and signatures. To meet our statutory mandate and in consideration of concerns about safeguarding personal information and appropriate use of the information in developing the NPRM, DOT proposes to require security measures for electronic forms and signatures used under part 40 that are the same as those currently in place for the electronic CCF specified in 49 CFR 40.40(c)(5).
Most commenters were supportive of changes to amend part 40 that would permit, but not require, the use of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping. Commenters supporting revisions to part 40 noted that electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping are used in virtually every industry today—including but not limited to the banking, insurance, medical, and legal industries. Commenters supported the use of performance standards instead of technology-specific standards to ensure that, once established, standards do not become obsolete given the rapidly evolving nature of information technology standards and practices. Commenters stated that allowing electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping would make the drug testing process much more efficient and would result in cost savings. Commenters also stated that it would be safer to store records electronically since records could be backed-up, secured, and protected from tampering and unauthorized access and use.
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
In developing this NPRM, we looked to a rule promulgated by DOT's FMCSA that permits the use of electronic methods to generate, certify, sign, maintain, or exchange records so long as the documents accurately reflect the required information and can be used for their intended purpose. (83 FR 16210, Apr. 16, 2018) The rule applies to documents that FMCSA requires entities or individuals to retain. FMCSA permits, but does not require, anyone to satisfy FMCSA requirements by using electronic methods to generate, maintain, or exchange documents. The substance of the document must otherwise comply with applicable Federal laws and FMCSA rules. FMCSA also permits, but does not require, anyone required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures, defined, as in the GPEA, as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (1) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (2) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. FMCSA allows for the use any available technology for electronic signatures, so long as the signature otherwise complies with FMCSA's requirements.
FMCSA adopted broad performance standards for electronic documents and signatures—as specified in GPEA and E-SIGN—rather than detailed, technology specific standards that would likely become obsolete with inevitable changes in information technology standards and practices. FMCSA's April 2018 rule has been in effect for more than five years, and the definitions and requirements established in that rule have stood the test of time despite the many changes that have occurred with respect to electronic documents and signatures. We are unaware of any FMCSA-regulated entities that have reported issues to FMCSA regarding the use of electronic documents or signatures to meet the requirements of the FMCSRs since the rule became effective in 2018.
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
In this NPRM, we propose to permit but not require electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping in part 40. Additionally, we propose a performance standard approach as opposed to establishing technology-specific standards. Where it is possible to do so, establishing the same or substantively similar regulatory requirements for common issues across DOT modal agencies—such as the use of electronic documents and signatures—helps the Department maintain a consistent regulatory approach for those common issues.
There are currently more than 60 references to the term “written” in part 40, and more than 20 additional references to the term “in writing.” We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing” in part 40, to eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic documentation and establish technological neutrality throughout the entirety of part 40.
FMCSA's rule does not apply to documents that individuals or entities are required to file directly with FMCSA. In its April 2018 final rule, FMCSA explained that while industry could use electronic signatures and submit information directly to the FMCSA in certain situations, 6 adapting all FMCSA systems to allow for use of electronic signatures and submissions would significantly delay the implementation of the rule for use by third parties as it would require FMCSA to develop and implement technology systems to allow for direct submission to FMCSA from regulated parties. FMCSA noted that development of such systems could take several years, and therefore saw no reason to make private parties' use of electronic signatures and records retention contingent upon FMCSA's ability to receive submissions electronically because doing so would delay potential benefits to be gained by third parties.
6 As an example, Certified Medical Examiners may use electronic signatures, if they choose to do so, to sign medical forms, certificates, and a new driver medication report. If FMCSA requests these forms, they are uploaded in portable document format (PDF) to the Medical Examiner's account associated with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners for FMCSA to access.
In contrast to FMCSA's regulations, part 40 does not require entities or individuals to submit documents directly to the Department except for MIS aggregate drug and alcohol testing data that employers subject to DOT or U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) drug and alcohol testing regulations must submit annually. Each of the various documents required and used as part of the DOT drug and alcohol testing program under part 40 ( e.g., employee drug and alcohol testing records, MRO reports and records, SAP reports and records) are documents that are created by, exchanged between, and maintained by a person or entity involved in the testing process—but are not required to be submitted directly to DOT.
As noted earlier, and specifically with respect to the required MIS data, we standardized the form for employers to report their aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected, more than 20 years ago. At that time, we authorized employers to submit the ONE-DOT MIS form via a web portal. Today, the Federal Aviation Administration, FMCSA, Federal Railroad Administration, and Federal Transit Administration permit employers to submit that same drug and alcohol testing data via the internet, and PHMSA requires that the data be submitted electronically. If employers submit the data electronically via the internet, they are not required to submit a hard copy. DOT recommends that employers have a copy of their data available (either hard copy or in electronic format) in the event an auditor or inspector requests a copy.
From the above, and because the only documents that part 40 requires to be submitted directly to the Department are already permitted to be, and in some cases required to be, submitted electronically, there is no need for us to limit the applicability of our proposal as FMCSA did in its 2018 final rule.
Several commenters noted that they already use electronic signatures and documents for their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing program, and in some cases, have done so for many years. In doing so, these commenters have had to establish appropriate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons, including protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The same general requirements were added to the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved the use of the electronic CCF for use in DOT drug testing in 2015, 7 and we propose the same requirements in this NPRM for the use of electronic signatures, documents, and recordkeeping throughout the entirety of part 40.
7 The 2015 revisions amended then §40.45(c)(5), which was redesignated as §40.40(c)(5) in the May 2023 final rule to include oral fluid testing in the DOT drug testing program (88 FR 27596, May 2, 2023).
Ensuring that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons is an important element of part 40's protections for employees that are subject to DOT's drug and alcohol testing rules. We believe that the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system should constitute the basis for the Department to start a public interest exclusion (PIE) proceeding, and propose to add this to the list of examples provided in §40.365(b).
Throughout part 40, information and documents are required to be transmitted and/or communicated between service agents ( e.g., collectors, screening test technicians (STTs) and breath alcohol technicians (BATs), laboratories, MROs, SAPs, and consortium/third party administrators (C/TPAs)), employers, and employees). Although part 40 does not currently require the party receiving these communications and/or documents to affirmatively confirm receipt of such from the sender, in some instances, regardless of whether the document is electronic or a hard copy, we believe that it may be important for the receiving party to verify that those required communications and/or documents were received.
For example, under §40.25, an employer intending to use an employee to perform safety-sensitive functions must, after obtaining an employee's written consent, request information about the employee's drug and alcohol testing record from previous DOT-regulated employers. After receiving a copy of the employee's written consent, the previous employer must immediately provide the requested information to the employer making the inquiry. If an employer is subsequently investigated/audited by the appropriate DOT mode, it may be beneficial for both the gaining employer and the previous employer to be able to affirmatively demonstrate that the employee's written consent and previous testing record were sent and received as required.
Sections 40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) require a collector or MRO (for drug tests) or a BAT, STT, or a physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation (for alcohol tests), respectively, to—when an employee refuses to participate in a part of the testing process—terminate the testing process, document the refusal, and immediately and directly notify the employer's designated employer representative (DER) by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. Because this notification of a refusal to an employer is of an urgent nature, it may be advisable to require the DER to affirmatively confirm receipt of the required notification from the collector, MRO, BAT, STT, or physician. For example, §§40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) could be amended to read “. . . immediately notify the DER by any means and ensure that the refusal notification is immediately received”.
While we are not proposing new requirements in this NPRM regarding confirmation of receipt in the sections discussed above (or in other part 40 requirements), we seek comment regarding whether it may be beneficial or advisable to do so, and if so, for which specific sections of part 40.
VIII. Electronic ATF
The ATF has been in use in the DOT alcohol testing program since 1994 (see 59 FR 7349, Feb. 15, 1994). The ATF must be used to document every DOT alcohol test. DOT regulations at 49 CFR 40.225 set forth the requirements for use of the form, and 49 CFR part 40, appendix G, contains a facsimile (reference copy) of the form. The ATF is a three-part carbonless manifold form used by DOT-regulated employers to document the testing event when testing employees subject to DOT alcohol testing. When the employee is tested, both the employee and the STT and/or the BAT will complete the ATF in various sections. The STT/BAT documents the result(s) by either writing in the screening result or attaching the screening and/or confirmation result printed by the evidential breath testing devices (EBT) onto the ATF, and then sends Copy 1 to the employer, provides Copy 2 to the employee, and retains Copy 3 for their records.
On April 2, 2020, DISA petitioned the Department to amend part 40 to allow for the use of an electronic version of the ATF for DOT mandated alcohol testing. In support of its petition, DISA stated that “The requested amendment to 49 CFR part 40 will enable a parallel process for the documentation of DOT-mandated alcohol tests aligned with the similarly situated amendment previously approved for drug testing.” DISA believes that allowing the use of an electronic ATF will result in several benefits to the industry, including “increased efficiency, security and accuracy in documentation of DOT alcohol tests; paperwork reduction; improved process for conducting a DOT alcohol test in conjunction with a DOT drug test when an electronic version of the federal CCF is used for the drug test; reduction of errors and omissions in the completion of the ATF; and improved efficiency and efficacy in the transmission and record retention of alcohol test results.”
DISA noted that non-DOT workplace breath alcohol testing has been conducted using electronic versions of an alcohol testing form that mirrors the DOT ATF for more than five years. Based on experience using those electronic forms for non-DOT testing, DISA cites improved efficiency and accuracy of documentation because: (1) employer and employee information is entered via computer and thus not dependent on reading and deciphering hand-written entries, (2) date time stamps of the testing are automated and not subject to fluctuation or error, (3) transmission of documentation on completed tests is more secure using databases accessed only via protected password and personal identification number (PIN) to authorized employers or their designated agents, and (4) transmission of test result information is faster and more secure than existing transmission options of scanning and emailing attachments or facsimile.
DISA also noted that permitting use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing “will substantially reduce cost, by eliminating the requirement for the printing and distribution of carbonless three-ply paper ATFs. The proposed electronic ATF option would still provide for printed paper images to be made available to the employee, the employer, and the alcohol technician, [but] eliminates the requirement for the more expensive carbonless 3 ply paper ATF.”
For the reasons described by DISA in its petition, and recognizing that significant benefits and cost reductions have resulted from use of the electronic CCF for drug testing, we believe that it is likewise appropriate to permit the use of electronic ATFs in part 40 for DOT-regulated testing. Permitting but not requiring the use of an electronic ATF would be consistent with our proposal to permit, but not require, the use of electronic documents and signatures throughout the entirety of part 40 as discussed above. As several commenters noted, the use of an electronic ATF has been used in non-DOT testing for 5-10 years, and the same developers of the electronic CCFs have developed the electronic ATFs. Any electronic ATF used under part 40 for DOT-regulated employees would have to be identical in form and content to the DOT ATF in appendix I to part 40. 8 Just as we imposed general confidentiality and security requirements when electronic CCFs were permitted to be used under part 40, we believe that it is necessary to include the same general requirements relating to the use of electronic ATFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
8 The ATF form was redesignated from appendix G to appendix I as part of the rulemaking process culminating in the May 2023 final rule. During that process, the form was reviewed by the public and DOT received no comment on the form.
Manufacturers of EBTs and alcohol screening devices (ASD) used in DOT alcohol tests must obtain approval from the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) and then be listed on the Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance's (ODAPC) website before those devices may be used in DOT alcohol testing.
IX. PHMSA Proposed Changes
PHMSA is proposing to amend §§199.3, 199.117, and 199.227 and to add §199.4 to conform to the proposed changes in part 40 and to clarify that the proposed changes in part 40 apply to part 199. These changes will help the readers of part 199 find the applicable regulations in part 40 with regards to the definition of terms and record keeping requirements. We also propose to amend §§199.119 and 199.229 by changing the reference of “appendix H” to “appendix J” to conform to the amendment of part 40 published on May 2, 2023.
X. Section-by-Section Analysis
Section 40.3 What do the terms used in this regulation mean?
We propose to add a definition of “electronic signature.” The rule would define an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 112 Stat. 2681-749). Including the specific cross reference to GPEA would ensure that regulated entities know that we are using GPEA's performance standard for allowing use of electronic signatures.
We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing.” The rule would define written or in writing as printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of 49 CFR 40.4. This definition would eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic methods of communication/documentation.
Section 40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
We propose to add a new §40.4 that would prescribe the requirements pertaining to electronic documents and signatures throughout part 40.
Paragraph (a) would specify that §40.4 would apply to all documents required by part 40, except for the CCF, as an electronic CCF may only be used when approved by HHS and in compliance with §40.40(c)(5). As background, before an HHS-certified laboratory can use a Federal electronic CCF for regulated specimens, the test facility must submit a detailed plan and proposed standard operating procedures for the electronic CCF system for HHS review and approval through the National Laboratory Certification Program. At the current time, several HHS-certified laboratories have received approval to use a combination electronic/paper CCF, while four laboratories have received approval to use a fully electronic CCF. As noted earlier, and in a separate section of the SUPPORT Act, HHS was required to set a deadline for certified laboratories to request approval for use of fully electronic CCFs. That deadline is now August 31, 2026.
Paragraph (b) would permit, but not require, any person or entity to use electronic methods to comply with any provision in part 40 that requires a document to be signed, certified, generated, maintained, or transmitted between parties. It would apply to all forms of written documentation, including forms, records, notations, and other documents. The substance of the document would otherwise have to comply with part 40 requirements. This would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures, greatly expanding interested parties' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (c) would permit, but not require, any entity required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures as defined in §40.3. The rule specifies that a person may use any available technology so long as the signature otherwise complies with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (d) would establish the minimum requirements for electronic documents and signatures. Any electronic document or signature would be considered the legal equivalent of a paper document or signature if it is the functional equivalent with respect to integrity, accuracy, and accessibility. In other words, the electronic documents or signatures need to accurately and reliably reflect the information in the record. They must remain accessible in a form that could be accurately viewed or reproduced according to Agency rules. As with any documents, paper or electronic, documents that are not legible—for any reason—do not satisfy the Department's requirements.
Electronic documents are not to be considered the legal equivalent of traditional paper documents if they (1) are not capable of being retained, (2) are not used for the purpose for which they were created, or (3) cannot be accurately reproduced for reference by any entity entitled to access by law, for the period of time required by the Department's recordkeeping requirements.
Paragraph (d) would also require that any electronically signed documents must incorporate or otherwise include evidence that both parties to the document have consented to the use of electronic signatures, as required by the E-SIGN Act (15 U.S.C. 7001(c)).
Paragraph (e) would require that when using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The proposed requirements are analogous to those established in the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved use of the electronic CCF in part 40.
Section 40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
Currently, paragraph (g) makes it clear that the release of information under this section must be in any written form, and the parenthetical clarifies that this can be paper-based (written, fax) or electronic (email). Under the proposed definition of “written or in writing,” there is no distinction between paper-based and electronic communications. Because “written or in writing” would mean either paper or electronic communications, we propose to remove parenthetical reference to “fax, email, letter” to eliminate redundancy and confusion. All parties can conduct their business using either paper or electronic means of documentation and communication.
Section 40.79 How is the collection process completed?
Currently, paragraph (a)(9) of this section requires the collector to “fax or otherwise transmit” Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. We propose to amend this section by removing reference to the methods of transmitting receipts, so parties can choose their own medium of communication.
Section 40.97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.111 When and how must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to amend paragraph (b) of this section to remove the references to the methods of transmitting the summary or report required by this section. Because the summary or report can be transmitted via hard copy or electronically, there is no need to specify how it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
Section 40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to remove the reference to a “letter” in paragraph (c) of this section. In paragraph (e) of this section, we propose to replace the term “letter” with “written report” for consistency with paragraph (c).
Section 40.167 How are MRO reports of drug results transmitted to the employer?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
Section 40.185 Through what methods and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (b) of this section. In addition, because Copy 1 of the CCF can be transmitted in writing or electronically, there is no need to specify the methods through which it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.
Section 40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (d) of this section as means of transmitting notification that an employee has refused to participate in part of the testing process from the collector or MRO to the DER.
Section 40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of urine for a drug test?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “send or fax” as the means for the collector to transmit copies of the CCF to the MRO and the DER in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
Section 40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a collector, laboratory, MRO, employer, or other person to supply signed statements regarding correctable problems in a drug test in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
We propose to amend this section to permit, but not require, the use of an electronic version of the DOT ATF that is identical in form and content to the form provided in appendix I to part 40. The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT, and if an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results pursuant to §40.253(g), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout. This section would also be amended to specify the same general confidentiality and security measures in §40.45 relating to electronic CCFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
Section 40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section as means of transmitting results of the alcohol confirmation test from the BAT to the DER. Similarly, there is no need to specify that Copy 1 of the ATF may be transmitted “in person, by telephone, or by electronic means.”
Section 40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (c) of this section as means of transmitting a refusal notification from a BAT, STT, or referral physician to the DER.
Section 40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a STT, BAT, employer, or other service agent to supply a signed statement regarding correctable flaws in an alcohol test in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
We propose to amend this section by adding a new paragraph (b)(15) that would identify the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system as appropriate grounds for starting a PIE proceeding.
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 (Regulatory Planning and Review)
The Secretary has examined the impact of the proposed part 40 amendments under Executive Order 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”), as supplemented by Executive Order 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) and amended by Executive Order 14094 (“Modernizing Regulatory Review”), which directs Federal agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity).
According to these Executive orders, a regulatory action is “significant” if it meets any one of a number of specified conditions, including having an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more, as adjusted every three years by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA); adversely affecting in a material way a sector of the economy, competition, or jobs; or if it raises novel legal or policy issues. The proposed amendments, which would allow the use of electronic documents and signatures, do not meet the Executive order's criteria for being a significant rule. Consequently, OMB has determined that the rulemaking action is not significant under the Executive order.
The proposed rule responds to the statutory mandate set forth in Section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271. The proposed rule would not impose new requirements on the industry; rather, it would simply permit—but not require—regulated entities to use electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, and remove outdated and obsolete references in the regulatory text. The proposed rule would not impose new costs on the industry because regulated entities would be allowed to choose to continue to use paper-based documents as they had before. The benefits of the rule would stem from savings in paper and printing expense and other efficiency gains. Examples of documents affected by this rule include, but are not limited to, records of a prospective employee's drug and alcohol testing history that employers must obtain prior to permitting that employee to perform safety-sensitive duties, MRO records and reports, SAP records and reports, and ATFs. While there is no way to estimate how many entities or individuals would change their practices given the new options, or how many documents would be affected, several commenters to the ANPRM stated that they have been using electronic documents and signatures in their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing programs for many years. While neither the benefits nor the costs of this rule can be reliably estimated, we expect this proposed rule to provide flexibility to the industry. Under this proposed rule, regulated entities would have the flexibility to conduct business using either electronic or traditional paper-based methods. We also expect regulated entities to choose technologies that would maximize benefits in accordance with their individual needs and circumstances.
Regulatory Flexibility Act and Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA)
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq. ) requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of their regulatory actions on small businesses and other small entities and minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with a population of less than 50,000. For this rulemaking, potentially affected small entities include drug testing companies (U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Sector 54 (Professional, Scientific and Technical Services), Code 541380 (Testing Laboratories and Services)) as well as DOT-regulated entities (SBA NAICS Sectors 48-49 (Transportation and Warehousing)).
The Department does not expect that the proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed rule, if adopted, would increase flexibility for all small-entity transportation employers and their service agents by allowing them to use electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping to meet part 40 requirements. Use of electronic documents, electronic signatures, and electronic recordkeeping would be voluntary for affected small entities, which will provide added flexibility to these entities in meeting the part 40 requirements. For these reasons, and as explained in more detail in the preamble to this proposed rule, the Secretary certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Consequently, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required for this proposed rule.
Unfunded Mandates
The Secretary has examined the impact of the final rule under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). This NPRM does not trigger the requirement for a written statement under sec. 202(a) of the UMRA because this rulemaking does not impose a mandate that results in an expenditure of $100 million (adjusted annually for inflation) or more by either State, local, and tribal governments in the aggregate or by the private sector in any one year. In fact, by providing an alternative to traditional paper-based records, the proposed rule would be expected to reduce costs to regulated parties, including State and local entities ( e.g., public transit authorities, and public works departments) whose employees are subject to testing and that choose to use electronic documents as opposed to paper-based documents.
Environmental Impact
The DOT has analyzed the environmental impacts of this action pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. ) and has determined that it is categorically excluded pursuant to DOT Order 5610.1C, “Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts” (44 FR 56420, October 1, 1979). Categorical exclusions are actions identified in an agency's NEPA implementing procedures that do not normally have a significant impact on the environment and therefore do not require either an environmental assessment (EA) or environmental impact statement (EIS). This proposed rule would amend the transportation industry drug testing program procedures regulation to permit the use of electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping. This action is covered by the categorical exclusion listed at 23 CFR 771.118(c)(4), “[p]lanning and administrative activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction, such as: . . . promulgation of rules, regulations, directives . . .” The Department does not anticipate any environmental impacts, and there are no extraordinary circumstances present in connection with this rulemaking.
Executive Order 13132: Federalism
The Secretary has analyzed the final rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132: Federalism. Executive Order 13132 requires Federal agencies to carefully examine actions to determine if they contain policies that have federalism implications or that preempt State law. As defined in the order, “policies that have federalism implications” refer to regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
Most of the regulated parties under the Department's drug testing program are private entities. Some regulated entities are public entities ( e.g., transit authorities and public works departments); however, as noted above, this proposal would reduce costs of the Department's drug testing program and provide additional flexibility for regulated parties. Accordingly, the Secretary has determined that the proposed rule, which would allow but not require use of electronic signatures and recordkeeping, does not contain policies that have federalism implications.
Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments
Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 6, 2000) requires Federal agencies to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by tribal officials in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications.” “Policies that have tribal implications” as defined in the Executive order, include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and the Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes.” This proposed rule does not have tribal implications. The proposed rule will also not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175.
Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) requires that DOT consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the PRA. Instead, there would likely be a significant reduction in the burden hours required for information collection 2105-0529, Procedures for Transportation Drug and Alcohol Testing Program, due to the ability to use electronic signatures and forms, and largely due to the ability to use an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing under part 40. We request comments on this issue. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a currently valid OMB control number.
Privacy Act
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received in any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.) For information on DOT's compliance with the Privacy Act, please visit https://www.transportation.gov/privacy.
5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4)
As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this proposed rule can be found at the entry for RIN 2105-AF01 in the Department's Portion of the Unified Agenda of Regulatory and Deregulatory Affairs, available at https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202404&RIN=2105-AF01 .
Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023
In accordance with Compliance with Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 (Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2023, Pub. L. 118-5, div. B, title III) and OMB Memorandum (M-23-21) dated September 1, 2023, the Department has determined that this proposed rule is not subject to the Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 because it will not increase direct spending beyond specified thresholds.
List of Subjects
49 CFR Part 40
Administrative practice and procedures, Alcohol abuse, Alcohol testing, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Laboratories, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
49 CFR Part 199
Alcohol testing, Drug testing, Pipeline safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department proposes to amend 49 CFR parts 40 and 199 as follows:
PART 40—PROCEDURES FOR TRANSPORTATION WORKPLACE DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING PROGRAMS
1. The authority for part 40 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 102, 301, 322, 5331, 20140, 31306, and 54101 et seq.
2. In §40.3, add the definitions of “Electronic signature” and “Written or in writing” in alphabetical order to read as follows:
§40.3 What do the terms used in this part mean?
* * * * *
Electronic signature. A method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 112 Stat. 2681-749, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note).
* * * * *
Written or in writing. Printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of §40.4.
3. Add §40.4 to read as follows:
§40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
(a) Applicability. This section applies to all documents required by this part, except for the CCF. An electronic CCF may be used only if it has been approved for use by the Department of Health and Human Services and is used in compliance with §40.40(c)(5).
(b) Electronic records or documents. Any person or entity required to generate, maintain, or exchange and/or transmit documents to satisfy requirements in this part may use electronic methods to satisfy those requirements.
(c) Electronic signatures. (1) Any person or entity required to sign or certify a document to satisfy the requirements of this part may use an electronic signature, as defined in §40.3.
(2) Any available technology may be used that satisfies the requirements of an electronic signature as defined in §40.3.
(d) Electronic document requirements. Any person or entity may use documents signed, certified, generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods, as long as the documents accurately reflect the information otherwise required to be contained in them.
(1) Records, documents, or signatures generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods satisfy the requirements of this section if they are capable of being retained, are used for the purpose for which they were created, and can be accurately reproduced within required timeframes for reference by any party entitled to access.
(2) Records or documents generated electronically satisfy the requirements of this section if they include proof of consent to use electronically generated records or documents, as required by 15 U.S.C. 7001(c).
(e) Confidentiality and security. When using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form to include protecting against destruction, deterioration, and data corruption.
4. In §40.25, revise paragraph (g) to read as follows:
§40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
* * * * *
(g) The release of information under this section must be in any written form that ensures confidentiality. As the previous employer, you must maintain a written record of the information released, including the date, the party to whom it was released, and a summary of the information provided.
* * * * *
5. In §40.79, revise paragraph (a)(9) to read as follows:
§40.79 How is the collection process completed?
(a) * * *
(9) Send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. Keep Copy 3 for at least 30 days, unless otherwise specified by applicable DOT agency regulations.
* * * * *
6. In §40.97, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text, (c)(1) introductory text, and (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40. 97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
* * * * *
(c) As a laboratory, you must report laboratory results directly, and only, to the MRO at his or her place of business. You must not report results to or through the DER or a service agent ( e.g., C/TPA).
(1) Negative results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF which has been signed by the certifying scientist, or you may provide the laboratory results report electronically.
* * * * *
(2) Non-negative and rejected for testing results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF that has been signed by the certifying scientist. In addition, you may provide the laboratory results report following the format and procedures set forth in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
* * * * *
7. In §40.111, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.111 When must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
* * * * *
(b) When the employer requests a summary in response to an inspection, audit, or review by a DOT agency, you must provide it unless the employer had fewer than five aggregate test results. In that case, you must send the employer a report indicating that not enough testing was conducted to warrant a summary.
* * * * *
8. In §40.127, revise paragraph (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF or the electronic laboratory results report that conveys the negative laboratory test result.
* * * * *
9. In §40.129, revise paragraphs (b) introductory text and (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative drug test results?
* * * * *
(b) Before you report a verified negative, positive, test cancelled, refusal to test because of adulteration or substitution, you must have in your possession the following documents:
* * * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF, containing the certifying scientist's signature.
* * * * *
10. In §40.163, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text and (e) to read as follows:
§40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
* * * * *
(c) If you do not report test results using Copy 2 of the CCF for the purposes of this section, you must provide a written report for each test result. This report must, as a minimum, include the following information:
* * * * *
(e) You must retain a signed or stamped and dated copy of Copy 2 of the CCF in your records. If you do not use Copy 2 for reporting results, you must maintain a copy of the signed or stamped and dated written report in addition to the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2. If you use the electronic data file to report negatives, you must maintain a retrievable copy of that report in a format suitable for inspection and auditing by a DOT representative.
* * * * *
11. In §40.167, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.167 How are MRO reports of drug test results transmitted to the employer?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(1) You must transmit a legible image or copy of either the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2 or the written report (see §40.163(b) and (c)).
* * * * *
12. In §40.185, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.185 What and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
* * * * *
(b) You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF, which has been signed by the certifying scientist.
* * * * *
13. In §40.187, revise paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) to read as follows:
§40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(iv) * * *
(C) As the laboratory that tests the primary specimen to reconfirm the presence of the adulterant found in the split specimen and/or to determine that the primary specimen meets appropriate substitution criteria, report your result to the MRO using a copy of Copy 1 of the CCF.
* * * * *
14. In §40.191, revise paragraph (d) introductory text to read as follows:
§40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(d) As a collector or an MRO, when an employee refuses to participate in the part of the testing process in which you are involved, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the CCF (including, in the case of the collector, printing the employee's name on Copy 2 of the CCF), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures that the refusal notification is immediately received. As a referral physician ( e.g., physician evaluating a “shy bladder” condition or a claim of a legitimate medical explanation in a validity testing situation), you must notify the MRO, who in turn will notify the DER.
* * * * *
15. In §40.193, revise paragraph (b)(3) to read as follows:
§40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of specimen for a drug test?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(3) As the collector, you must send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or the next business day.
* * * * *
16. In §40.205, revise paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) to read as follows:
§40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(1) If the problem resulted from the omission of required information, you must, as the person responsible for providing that information, supply in writing the missing information and a statement that it is true and accurate. For example, suppose you are a collector, and you forgot to make a notation on the “Remarks” line of the CCF that the employee did not sign the certification. You would, when the problem is called to your attention, supply a signed statement that the employee failed or refused to sign the certification and that your statement is true and accurate. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-Federal form or an expired Federal form, you must provide a signed statement ( i.e., a memorandum for the record). It must state that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT drug test, and that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control. The statement must also list the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-Federal forms or expired Federal forms for DOT tests. For this flaw to be corrected, the test of the specimen must have occurred at an HHS-certified laboratory where it was tested consistent with the requirements of this part. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
17. In §40.225, revise paragraph (a) and add paragraphs (d) and (e) to read as follows:
§40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
(a) The DOT Alcohol Testing Form (ATF) must be used for every DOT alcohol test. The ATF must be a three-part carbonless manifold form or an electronic ATF that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. The ATF is found in appendix G to this part. You may view this form on the ODAPC website ( https://www.transportation.gov/odapc ).
* * * * *
(d) As an employer, you may use an electronic ATF that meets the following requirements:
(1) The electronic ATF must be identical in form and content to the ATF found in appendix G to this part.
(2) The electronic ATF must meet the requirements of §40.4(d).
(3) The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT.
(4) If an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results (see §40.253(g)), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout.
(e) As an employer, BAT, or STT using an electronic ATF, you must establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form.
18. In §40.255, revise paragraph (a)(5)(i) to read as follows:
§40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(i) You may transmit the results using Copy 1 of the ATF, in person, by telephone, or by electronic means. In any case, you must immediately notify the DER of any result of 0.02 or greater by any means that ensures the result is immediately received by the DER. You must not transmit these results through C/TPAs or other service agents.
* * * * *
19. In §40.261, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(c)(1) As a BAT or an STT, or as the physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation, when an employee refuses to test as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the ATF (or in a separate document which you cause to be attached to the form), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. You must make this notification directly to the DER (not using a C/TPA as an intermediary).
* * * * *
20. In §40.271, revise paragraph (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-DOT form, you must, as the person responsible for the use of the incorrect form, certify in writing that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT alcohol test. You must also provide a signed statement that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control, and the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-DOT forms for DOT tests. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
21. In §40.365, revise paragraphs (b)(13) and (14) and add paragraph (b)(15) to read as follows:
§40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(13) For any service agent, directing or recommending that an employer fail or refuse to implement any provision of this part;
(14) With respect to noncompliance with a DOT agency regulation, conduct that affects important provisions of Department-wide concern ( e.g., failure to properly conduct the selection process for random testing); or
(15) For a service agent, failing to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system. PART 199—DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING
22. The authority citation for part 199 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 5103, 60102, 60104, 60108, 60117, and 60118; 49 CFR 1.53.
23. In §199.3:
a. Designate the introductory text as paragraph (b); and
b. Add paragraph (a).
The addition reads as follows:
§199.3 Definitions.
(a) Terms used in this part have the same meaning as in 49 CFR 40.3.
* * * * *
24. Add §199.4 to read as follows:
§199.4 Electronic documents, records, and signatures.
Electronic documents, records, and signatures may be used to comply with this part provided they meet the requirements specified in 49 CFR part 40.
25. In §199.117, revise paragraph (a) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.117 Recordkeeping.
(a) Each operator shall keep the records in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for the periods specified by this section or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater; and will permit access to the records as provided by §190.203.
* * * * *
26. In §199.119, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.119 Reporting of anti-drug testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual Management Information System (MIS) report to PHMSA of its anti-drug testing using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
27. In §199.227, revise paragraph (b) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.227 Retention of records.
* * * * *
(b) Period of retention. Each operator shall maintain the records in accordance with the following schedule or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater:
* * * * *
28. In §199.229, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.229 Reporting of alcohol testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual MIS report to PHMSA of its alcohol testing results using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
Signed on: Thursday, October 3, 2024.
Pete Buttigieg,
Secretary of Transportation.
[FR Doc. 2024-23427 Filed 10-11-24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P
NewsFleet SafetyPipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTOffice of the Secretary of TransportationHazmat SafetyRulemakingFocus AreaProposed RuleEnglishTransportationUSA
89 FR 82957 Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
2024-10-15T05:00:00Z
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Office of the Secretary
49 CFR Part 40
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
49 CFR Part 199
[Docket DOT-OST-2022-0027]
RIN 2105-AF01
Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
AGENCY: Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
SUMMARY: The Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) proposes to amend its regulations for conducting workplace drug and alcohol testing for the federally regulated transportation industry to allow, but not require, electronic signatures on documents required to be created and utilized under the regulations, the use of electronic versions of forms, and the electronic storage of forms and data. The regulatory changes would apply to DOT-regulated employers and their contractors (“service agents”) who administer their DOT-regulated drug and alcohol testing programs. Currently, employers and their service agents must use, sign and store paper documents exclusively, unless the employer is utilizing a laboratory's electronic Federal Drug Testing Custody and Control Form (electronic CCF) system that has been approved by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). DOT is required by statute to amend its regulations to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms. This rulemaking also responds to an April 2, 2020, petition for rulemaking from DISA Global Solutions, Inc. (DISA), requesting that DOT regulations be amended to allow the use of an electronic version of the alcohol testing form (ATF) for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. The proposed regulatory amendments are expected to provide additional flexibility and reduced costs for the industry while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the drug and alcohol testing regulations. In addition, DOT proposes to amend the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) regulation for conformity and to make other miscellaneous technical changes and corrections.
DATES: Comments on this NPRM must be received on or before December 16, 2024.
ADDRESSES: You may submit comments identified by Docket Number DOT-OST-2022-0027 using any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
• Mail: Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
• Hand Delivery or Courier: West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION section for instructions on submitting comments, including collection of information comments for the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Mike Huntley, Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590; telephone number 202-366-3784; ODAPCwebmail@dot.gov. If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
This NPRM is organized as follows:
I. Executive Summary
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
C. Privacy Act
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
IV. Background
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
VIII. Electronic ATF
IX. Section-by-Section Analysis
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
I. Executive Summary
Purpose and Summary of the Major Provisions
This proposed rule would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures and expand businesses' and individuals' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the Department's drug and alcohol testing regulation, 49 CFR part 40, “Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs” (part 40). Businesses and individuals subject to part 40 would continue to have the choice to use paper documents and traditional “wet” signatures. This proposed rule would also modify references to recordkeeping and reporting methods throughout part 40 to make them technologically neutral.
This proposed rulemaking responds to a statutory mandate set forth in section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271 (see 49 U.S.C. 322 note). The proposed rulemaking would take action consistent with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA) (division C, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, Pub. L. 105-277) and the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN) (Pub. L. 106-229) with regard to DOT's part 40 regulations.
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this NPRM (Docket No. DOT-OST-2022-0027), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. The Office of the Secretary (OST) recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in a cover letter or an email so that OST can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document, click on this NPRM, click “Comment,” and type your comment into the text box on the following screen.
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8 1/2 by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit comments by mail and would like to know that they reached the facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope.
OST will consider all comments and material received during the comment period in determining how to proceed with any final rule.
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as available in the docket, go to https://www.regulations.gov. Insert the docket number, DOT-OST-2022-0027, in the keyword box, and click “Search.” Next, click the “Open Docket Folder” button and choose the document to review. If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting the Docket Management Facility in Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting the Docket Management Facility.
C. Privacy Act
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to www.regulations.gov, as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices under the heading of “Department-Wide System of Records Notices”.
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority enacted in the Omnibus Transportation Employee Testing Act of 1991 (OTETA) (Pub. L. 102-143, tit. V, 105 Stat. 952) and codified at 49 U.S.C. 45102 (aviation), 49 U.S.C. 20140 (rail), 49 U.S.C. 31306 (motor carrier), and 49 U.S.C. 5331 (public transportation), as well as the Department's authority in 49 U.S.C. 322 and the PHMSA authorities specified in the proposed regulatory text for this action.
According to Public Law 115-271, the Secretary of Transportation is required to “issue a final rule revising part 40 of title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms.” (49 U.S.C. 322 note) The statute set the deadline for this action as not later than 18 months after HHS establishes a deadline for a certified laboratory to request approval for fully electronic CCFs ( Id. ) On April 7, 2022, HHS set that deadline as August 31, 2023 (87 FR 20528). HHS has extended the deadline to August 31, 2026, to enable sufficient time for all HHS-certified laboratories to identify and contract with an electronic CCF supplier or to develop an electronic CCF. The deadline for DOT's regulatory amendments would therefore be February 29, 2028.
There are two additional Federal statutes relevant to the implementation of electronic document and signature requirements.
The Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA), codified at 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 1 was enacted to improve customer service and governmental efficiency through the use of information technology. The GPEA defines an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (a) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (b) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. Id. It also requires OMB to ensure Federal agencies provide for: (a) the option of maintaining, submitting; or disclosing information electronically, when practicable; and (b) the use and acceptance of electronic signatures when practicable. The GPEA states that electronic records submitted pursuant to procedures developed under title XVII for the submission of records to Federal agencies and electronic signatures used in accordance with those procedures shall not be denied legal effect, validity, or enforceability merely because they are in electronic form. Id.
1 Division C, title XVII (sec. 1701-1710) of Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681-749, enacted on October 21, 1998.
The Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN), codified at 15 U.S.C. 7001-7031, 2 was designed to promote the use of electronic contract formation, signatures, and recordkeeping in private commerce by establishing legal equivalence between traditional paper-based methods and electronic methods. The E-SIGN Act allows the use of electronic records to satisfy any statute, regulation, or rule of law requiring that such information be provided in writing if the consumer has affirmatively consented to such use and has not withdrawn consent. Specifically, the statute establishes the legal equivalence of the following types of documents with respect to any transaction in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, whether in traditional paper or electronic form: (a) contracts, (b) signatures, and (c) other records (15 U.S.C. 7001(a)(1)).
2 Public Law 106-229, 114 Stat. 464, enacted on June 30, 2000.
IV. Background
The Department's drug and alcohol testing regulations were promulgated at a time when the ability to sign and retain official records electronically—now commonplace in many business segments—was not available. Over the course of several years, we have adopted measures that have reduced the paper documentation associated with the drug and alcohol testing program without compromising the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program. In 2003, we standardized the form for employers to report their Management Information System (MIS) aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected. 3 When creating a ONE-DOT MIS Form, we then authorized employers to submit a single standardized form via a web portal. In 2015, we issued a final rule to allow employers, collectors, laboratories, and medical review officers (MROs) to use the electronic version of the Federal Drug Testing CCF in the DOT-regulated drug testing program. 4 That final rule also incorporated into the regulations the requirement to establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons when using the electronic CCF. We also included language protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form when using the electronic CCF.
3 68 FR 43946 (July 25, 2003).
4 80 FR 19551 (Apr. 13, 2015).
Consistent with the statutory mandate in 49 U.S.C. 322 note, we propose amendments to part 40 to permit the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for drug and alcohol testing records throughout the regulation, including the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. We emphasize that electronic signatures, forms, and records would not be required; we would continue to allow paper, or hard-copy use with traditional “wet signatures.”
These proposed amendments would establish parity between paper and electronic collection and submission of information required under our regulations (and remain compatible with applicable OMB guidance on implementing electronic signatures 5 ) by allowing further use of electronic means and methods to comply with part 40 requirements. Many employers and their service agents have already instituted the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for the non-DOT regulated testing that they conduct. DOT supports this transition to a paperless system and is committed to ensuring that the movement to a partially or fully electronic part 40 is done to maximize program efficiencies and reduce costs, while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program.
5https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/2000-M-00-15-OMB-Guidance-on-Implementing-the-Electronic-Signatures-in-Global-and-National-Commerce-Act.pdf.
Electronic documents would have a high degree of forensic defensibility as long as any changes made to the document are in the document's electronic footprint, which shows when the document or signature, as applicable, was created; when, and if, changes were made; who made the changes; and when, as applicable, a document was transmitted to and received by the receiving entity. The use of electronic forms and signatures in part 40 would help DOT-regulated employers and their service agents improve their workflow efficiency through faster turnaround times for required documents. Cost savings would result through reduced printing and delivery/shipping costs, and expedited transmission of information allowing for more timely decisions. We believe this proposed rule, if adopted, would also mitigate the longstanding problems ( e.g., delays in processing times of test results, cancelling of test results, etc.) associated with illegible and lost copies of paper documents.
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
On August 5, 2022, we published an ANPRM requesting public comment on how part 40 could be amended, as required by the statute, to allow electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping (87 FR 47951). We requested information from DOT-regulated employers and their service agents regarding if and how they are already handling electronic signatures, records transmission, and records storage in their non-DOT testing programs. In addition, we requested comments and information on appropriate performance standards, and on whether particular methods or performance standards have been successful or unsuccessful. We also asked a number of general questions on the potential advantages, risks, ramifications, and required safeguards associated with the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records in the DOT drug and alcohol testing program. We asked questions about specific sections of part 40 that we anticipated would be affected by prospective changes to implement electronic signatures, forms, and records. Finally, we asked a number of questions regarding the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol tests.
We received 72 comments in response to the ANPRM, including comments from individuals, testing laboratories, MROs, and MRO organizations, substance abuse professionals (SAP) and SAP organizations, and various associations representing DOT-regulated transportation workers subject to mandatory drug and alcohol testing under part 40.
A few individuals expressed opposition to the adoption of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, citing concerns about the need for the rulemaking, risk to personal information from hackers or mismanaged electronic processes and procedures, and misuse of electronic forms and signatures. To meet our statutory mandate and in consideration of concerns about safeguarding personal information and appropriate use of the information in developing the NPRM, DOT proposes to require security measures for electronic forms and signatures used under part 40 that are the same as those currently in place for the electronic CCF specified in 49 CFR 40.40(c)(5).
Most commenters were supportive of changes to amend part 40 that would permit, but not require, the use of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping. Commenters supporting revisions to part 40 noted that electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping are used in virtually every industry today—including but not limited to the banking, insurance, medical, and legal industries. Commenters supported the use of performance standards instead of technology-specific standards to ensure that, once established, standards do not become obsolete given the rapidly evolving nature of information technology standards and practices. Commenters stated that allowing electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping would make the drug testing process much more efficient and would result in cost savings. Commenters also stated that it would be safer to store records electronically since records could be backed-up, secured, and protected from tampering and unauthorized access and use.
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
In developing this NPRM, we looked to a rule promulgated by DOT's FMCSA that permits the use of electronic methods to generate, certify, sign, maintain, or exchange records so long as the documents accurately reflect the required information and can be used for their intended purpose. (83 FR 16210, Apr. 16, 2018) The rule applies to documents that FMCSA requires entities or individuals to retain. FMCSA permits, but does not require, anyone to satisfy FMCSA requirements by using electronic methods to generate, maintain, or exchange documents. The substance of the document must otherwise comply with applicable Federal laws and FMCSA rules. FMCSA also permits, but does not require, anyone required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures, defined, as in the GPEA, as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (1) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (2) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. FMCSA allows for the use any available technology for electronic signatures, so long as the signature otherwise complies with FMCSA's requirements.
FMCSA adopted broad performance standards for electronic documents and signatures—as specified in GPEA and E-SIGN—rather than detailed, technology specific standards that would likely become obsolete with inevitable changes in information technology standards and practices. FMCSA's April 2018 rule has been in effect for more than five years, and the definitions and requirements established in that rule have stood the test of time despite the many changes that have occurred with respect to electronic documents and signatures. We are unaware of any FMCSA-regulated entities that have reported issues to FMCSA regarding the use of electronic documents or signatures to meet the requirements of the FMCSRs since the rule became effective in 2018.
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
In this NPRM, we propose to permit but not require electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping in part 40. Additionally, we propose a performance standard approach as opposed to establishing technology-specific standards. Where it is possible to do so, establishing the same or substantively similar regulatory requirements for common issues across DOT modal agencies—such as the use of electronic documents and signatures—helps the Department maintain a consistent regulatory approach for those common issues.
There are currently more than 60 references to the term “written” in part 40, and more than 20 additional references to the term “in writing.” We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing” in part 40, to eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic documentation and establish technological neutrality throughout the entirety of part 40.
FMCSA's rule does not apply to documents that individuals or entities are required to file directly with FMCSA. In its April 2018 final rule, FMCSA explained that while industry could use electronic signatures and submit information directly to the FMCSA in certain situations, 6 adapting all FMCSA systems to allow for use of electronic signatures and submissions would significantly delay the implementation of the rule for use by third parties as it would require FMCSA to develop and implement technology systems to allow for direct submission to FMCSA from regulated parties. FMCSA noted that development of such systems could take several years, and therefore saw no reason to make private parties' use of electronic signatures and records retention contingent upon FMCSA's ability to receive submissions electronically because doing so would delay potential benefits to be gained by third parties.
6 As an example, Certified Medical Examiners may use electronic signatures, if they choose to do so, to sign medical forms, certificates, and a new driver medication report. If FMCSA requests these forms, they are uploaded in portable document format (PDF) to the Medical Examiner's account associated with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners for FMCSA to access.
In contrast to FMCSA's regulations, part 40 does not require entities or individuals to submit documents directly to the Department except for MIS aggregate drug and alcohol testing data that employers subject to DOT or U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) drug and alcohol testing regulations must submit annually. Each of the various documents required and used as part of the DOT drug and alcohol testing program under part 40 ( e.g., employee drug and alcohol testing records, MRO reports and records, SAP reports and records) are documents that are created by, exchanged between, and maintained by a person or entity involved in the testing process—but are not required to be submitted directly to DOT.
As noted earlier, and specifically with respect to the required MIS data, we standardized the form for employers to report their aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected, more than 20 years ago. At that time, we authorized employers to submit the ONE-DOT MIS form via a web portal. Today, the Federal Aviation Administration, FMCSA, Federal Railroad Administration, and Federal Transit Administration permit employers to submit that same drug and alcohol testing data via the internet, and PHMSA requires that the data be submitted electronically. If employers submit the data electronically via the internet, they are not required to submit a hard copy. DOT recommends that employers have a copy of their data available (either hard copy or in electronic format) in the event an auditor or inspector requests a copy.
From the above, and because the only documents that part 40 requires to be submitted directly to the Department are already permitted to be, and in some cases required to be, submitted electronically, there is no need for us to limit the applicability of our proposal as FMCSA did in its 2018 final rule.
Several commenters noted that they already use electronic signatures and documents for their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing program, and in some cases, have done so for many years. In doing so, these commenters have had to establish appropriate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons, including protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The same general requirements were added to the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved the use of the electronic CCF for use in DOT drug testing in 2015, 7 and we propose the same requirements in this NPRM for the use of electronic signatures, documents, and recordkeeping throughout the entirety of part 40.
7 The 2015 revisions amended then §40.45(c)(5), which was redesignated as §40.40(c)(5) in the May 2023 final rule to include oral fluid testing in the DOT drug testing program (88 FR 27596, May 2, 2023).
Ensuring that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons is an important element of part 40's protections for employees that are subject to DOT's drug and alcohol testing rules. We believe that the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system should constitute the basis for the Department to start a public interest exclusion (PIE) proceeding, and propose to add this to the list of examples provided in §40.365(b).
Throughout part 40, information and documents are required to be transmitted and/or communicated between service agents ( e.g., collectors, screening test technicians (STTs) and breath alcohol technicians (BATs), laboratories, MROs, SAPs, and consortium/third party administrators (C/TPAs)), employers, and employees). Although part 40 does not currently require the party receiving these communications and/or documents to affirmatively confirm receipt of such from the sender, in some instances, regardless of whether the document is electronic or a hard copy, we believe that it may be important for the receiving party to verify that those required communications and/or documents were received.
For example, under §40.25, an employer intending to use an employee to perform safety-sensitive functions must, after obtaining an employee's written consent, request information about the employee's drug and alcohol testing record from previous DOT-regulated employers. After receiving a copy of the employee's written consent, the previous employer must immediately provide the requested information to the employer making the inquiry. If an employer is subsequently investigated/audited by the appropriate DOT mode, it may be beneficial for both the gaining employer and the previous employer to be able to affirmatively demonstrate that the employee's written consent and previous testing record were sent and received as required.
Sections 40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) require a collector or MRO (for drug tests) or a BAT, STT, or a physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation (for alcohol tests), respectively, to—when an employee refuses to participate in a part of the testing process—terminate the testing process, document the refusal, and immediately and directly notify the employer's designated employer representative (DER) by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. Because this notification of a refusal to an employer is of an urgent nature, it may be advisable to require the DER to affirmatively confirm receipt of the required notification from the collector, MRO, BAT, STT, or physician. For example, §§40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) could be amended to read “. . . immediately notify the DER by any means and ensure that the refusal notification is immediately received”.
While we are not proposing new requirements in this NPRM regarding confirmation of receipt in the sections discussed above (or in other part 40 requirements), we seek comment regarding whether it may be beneficial or advisable to do so, and if so, for which specific sections of part 40.
VIII. Electronic ATF
The ATF has been in use in the DOT alcohol testing program since 1994 (see 59 FR 7349, Feb. 15, 1994). The ATF must be used to document every DOT alcohol test. DOT regulations at 49 CFR 40.225 set forth the requirements for use of the form, and 49 CFR part 40, appendix G, contains a facsimile (reference copy) of the form. The ATF is a three-part carbonless manifold form used by DOT-regulated employers to document the testing event when testing employees subject to DOT alcohol testing. When the employee is tested, both the employee and the STT and/or the BAT will complete the ATF in various sections. The STT/BAT documents the result(s) by either writing in the screening result or attaching the screening and/or confirmation result printed by the evidential breath testing devices (EBT) onto the ATF, and then sends Copy 1 to the employer, provides Copy 2 to the employee, and retains Copy 3 for their records.
On April 2, 2020, DISA petitioned the Department to amend part 40 to allow for the use of an electronic version of the ATF for DOT mandated alcohol testing. In support of its petition, DISA stated that “The requested amendment to 49 CFR part 40 will enable a parallel process for the documentation of DOT-mandated alcohol tests aligned with the similarly situated amendment previously approved for drug testing.” DISA believes that allowing the use of an electronic ATF will result in several benefits to the industry, including “increased efficiency, security and accuracy in documentation of DOT alcohol tests; paperwork reduction; improved process for conducting a DOT alcohol test in conjunction with a DOT drug test when an electronic version of the federal CCF is used for the drug test; reduction of errors and omissions in the completion of the ATF; and improved efficiency and efficacy in the transmission and record retention of alcohol test results.”
DISA noted that non-DOT workplace breath alcohol testing has been conducted using electronic versions of an alcohol testing form that mirrors the DOT ATF for more than five years. Based on experience using those electronic forms for non-DOT testing, DISA cites improved efficiency and accuracy of documentation because: (1) employer and employee information is entered via computer and thus not dependent on reading and deciphering hand-written entries, (2) date time stamps of the testing are automated and not subject to fluctuation or error, (3) transmission of documentation on completed tests is more secure using databases accessed only via protected password and personal identification number (PIN) to authorized employers or their designated agents, and (4) transmission of test result information is faster and more secure than existing transmission options of scanning and emailing attachments or facsimile.
DISA also noted that permitting use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing “will substantially reduce cost, by eliminating the requirement for the printing and distribution of carbonless three-ply paper ATFs. The proposed electronic ATF option would still provide for printed paper images to be made available to the employee, the employer, and the alcohol technician, [but] eliminates the requirement for the more expensive carbonless 3 ply paper ATF.”
For the reasons described by DISA in its petition, and recognizing that significant benefits and cost reductions have resulted from use of the electronic CCF for drug testing, we believe that it is likewise appropriate to permit the use of electronic ATFs in part 40 for DOT-regulated testing. Permitting but not requiring the use of an electronic ATF would be consistent with our proposal to permit, but not require, the use of electronic documents and signatures throughout the entirety of part 40 as discussed above. As several commenters noted, the use of an electronic ATF has been used in non-DOT testing for 5-10 years, and the same developers of the electronic CCFs have developed the electronic ATFs. Any electronic ATF used under part 40 for DOT-regulated employees would have to be identical in form and content to the DOT ATF in appendix I to part 40. 8 Just as we imposed general confidentiality and security requirements when electronic CCFs were permitted to be used under part 40, we believe that it is necessary to include the same general requirements relating to the use of electronic ATFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
8 The ATF form was redesignated from appendix G to appendix I as part of the rulemaking process culminating in the May 2023 final rule. During that process, the form was reviewed by the public and DOT received no comment on the form.
Manufacturers of EBTs and alcohol screening devices (ASD) used in DOT alcohol tests must obtain approval from the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) and then be listed on the Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance's (ODAPC) website before those devices may be used in DOT alcohol testing.
IX. PHMSA Proposed Changes
PHMSA is proposing to amend §§199.3, 199.117, and 199.227 and to add §199.4 to conform to the proposed changes in part 40 and to clarify that the proposed changes in part 40 apply to part 199. These changes will help the readers of part 199 find the applicable regulations in part 40 with regards to the definition of terms and record keeping requirements. We also propose to amend §§199.119 and 199.229 by changing the reference of “appendix H” to “appendix J” to conform to the amendment of part 40 published on May 2, 2023.
X. Section-by-Section Analysis
Section 40.3 What do the terms used in this regulation mean?
We propose to add a definition of “electronic signature.” The rule would define an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 112 Stat. 2681-749). Including the specific cross reference to GPEA would ensure that regulated entities know that we are using GPEA's performance standard for allowing use of electronic signatures.
We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing.” The rule would define written or in writing as printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of 49 CFR 40.4. This definition would eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic methods of communication/documentation.
Section 40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
We propose to add a new §40.4 that would prescribe the requirements pertaining to electronic documents and signatures throughout part 40.
Paragraph (a) would specify that §40.4 would apply to all documents required by part 40, except for the CCF, as an electronic CCF may only be used when approved by HHS and in compliance with §40.40(c)(5). As background, before an HHS-certified laboratory can use a Federal electronic CCF for regulated specimens, the test facility must submit a detailed plan and proposed standard operating procedures for the electronic CCF system for HHS review and approval through the National Laboratory Certification Program. At the current time, several HHS-certified laboratories have received approval to use a combination electronic/paper CCF, while four laboratories have received approval to use a fully electronic CCF. As noted earlier, and in a separate section of the SUPPORT Act, HHS was required to set a deadline for certified laboratories to request approval for use of fully electronic CCFs. That deadline is now August 31, 2026.
Paragraph (b) would permit, but not require, any person or entity to use electronic methods to comply with any provision in part 40 that requires a document to be signed, certified, generated, maintained, or transmitted between parties. It would apply to all forms of written documentation, including forms, records, notations, and other documents. The substance of the document would otherwise have to comply with part 40 requirements. This would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures, greatly expanding interested parties' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (c) would permit, but not require, any entity required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures as defined in §40.3. The rule specifies that a person may use any available technology so long as the signature otherwise complies with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (d) would establish the minimum requirements for electronic documents and signatures. Any electronic document or signature would be considered the legal equivalent of a paper document or signature if it is the functional equivalent with respect to integrity, accuracy, and accessibility. In other words, the electronic documents or signatures need to accurately and reliably reflect the information in the record. They must remain accessible in a form that could be accurately viewed or reproduced according to Agency rules. As with any documents, paper or electronic, documents that are not legible—for any reason—do not satisfy the Department's requirements.
Electronic documents are not to be considered the legal equivalent of traditional paper documents if they (1) are not capable of being retained, (2) are not used for the purpose for which they were created, or (3) cannot be accurately reproduced for reference by any entity entitled to access by law, for the period of time required by the Department's recordkeeping requirements.
Paragraph (d) would also require that any electronically signed documents must incorporate or otherwise include evidence that both parties to the document have consented to the use of electronic signatures, as required by the E-SIGN Act (15 U.S.C. 7001(c)).
Paragraph (e) would require that when using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The proposed requirements are analogous to those established in the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved use of the electronic CCF in part 40.
Section 40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
Currently, paragraph (g) makes it clear that the release of information under this section must be in any written form, and the parenthetical clarifies that this can be paper-based (written, fax) or electronic (email). Under the proposed definition of “written or in writing,” there is no distinction between paper-based and electronic communications. Because “written or in writing” would mean either paper or electronic communications, we propose to remove parenthetical reference to “fax, email, letter” to eliminate redundancy and confusion. All parties can conduct their business using either paper or electronic means of documentation and communication.
Section 40.79 How is the collection process completed?
Currently, paragraph (a)(9) of this section requires the collector to “fax or otherwise transmit” Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. We propose to amend this section by removing reference to the methods of transmitting receipts, so parties can choose their own medium of communication.
Section 40.97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.111 When and how must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to amend paragraph (b) of this section to remove the references to the methods of transmitting the summary or report required by this section. Because the summary or report can be transmitted via hard copy or electronically, there is no need to specify how it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
Section 40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to remove the reference to a “letter” in paragraph (c) of this section. In paragraph (e) of this section, we propose to replace the term “letter” with “written report” for consistency with paragraph (c).
Section 40.167 How are MRO reports of drug results transmitted to the employer?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
Section 40.185 Through what methods and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (b) of this section. In addition, because Copy 1 of the CCF can be transmitted in writing or electronically, there is no need to specify the methods through which it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.
Section 40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (d) of this section as means of transmitting notification that an employee has refused to participate in part of the testing process from the collector or MRO to the DER.
Section 40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of urine for a drug test?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “send or fax” as the means for the collector to transmit copies of the CCF to the MRO and the DER in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
Section 40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a collector, laboratory, MRO, employer, or other person to supply signed statements regarding correctable problems in a drug test in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
We propose to amend this section to permit, but not require, the use of an electronic version of the DOT ATF that is identical in form and content to the form provided in appendix I to part 40. The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT, and if an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results pursuant to §40.253(g), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout. This section would also be amended to specify the same general confidentiality and security measures in §40.45 relating to electronic CCFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
Section 40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section as means of transmitting results of the alcohol confirmation test from the BAT to the DER. Similarly, there is no need to specify that Copy 1 of the ATF may be transmitted “in person, by telephone, or by electronic means.”
Section 40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (c) of this section as means of transmitting a refusal notification from a BAT, STT, or referral physician to the DER.
Section 40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a STT, BAT, employer, or other service agent to supply a signed statement regarding correctable flaws in an alcohol test in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
We propose to amend this section by adding a new paragraph (b)(15) that would identify the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system as appropriate grounds for starting a PIE proceeding.
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 (Regulatory Planning and Review)
The Secretary has examined the impact of the proposed part 40 amendments under Executive Order 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”), as supplemented by Executive Order 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) and amended by Executive Order 14094 (“Modernizing Regulatory Review”), which directs Federal agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity).
According to these Executive orders, a regulatory action is “significant” if it meets any one of a number of specified conditions, including having an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more, as adjusted every three years by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA); adversely affecting in a material way a sector of the economy, competition, or jobs; or if it raises novel legal or policy issues. The proposed amendments, which would allow the use of electronic documents and signatures, do not meet the Executive order's criteria for being a significant rule. Consequently, OMB has determined that the rulemaking action is not significant under the Executive order.
The proposed rule responds to the statutory mandate set forth in Section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271. The proposed rule would not impose new requirements on the industry; rather, it would simply permit—but not require—regulated entities to use electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, and remove outdated and obsolete references in the regulatory text. The proposed rule would not impose new costs on the industry because regulated entities would be allowed to choose to continue to use paper-based documents as they had before. The benefits of the rule would stem from savings in paper and printing expense and other efficiency gains. Examples of documents affected by this rule include, but are not limited to, records of a prospective employee's drug and alcohol testing history that employers must obtain prior to permitting that employee to perform safety-sensitive duties, MRO records and reports, SAP records and reports, and ATFs. While there is no way to estimate how many entities or individuals would change their practices given the new options, or how many documents would be affected, several commenters to the ANPRM stated that they have been using electronic documents and signatures in their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing programs for many years. While neither the benefits nor the costs of this rule can be reliably estimated, we expect this proposed rule to provide flexibility to the industry. Under this proposed rule, regulated entities would have the flexibility to conduct business using either electronic or traditional paper-based methods. We also expect regulated entities to choose technologies that would maximize benefits in accordance with their individual needs and circumstances.
Regulatory Flexibility Act and Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA)
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq. ) requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of their regulatory actions on small businesses and other small entities and minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with a population of less than 50,000. For this rulemaking, potentially affected small entities include drug testing companies (U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Sector 54 (Professional, Scientific and Technical Services), Code 541380 (Testing Laboratories and Services)) as well as DOT-regulated entities (SBA NAICS Sectors 48-49 (Transportation and Warehousing)).
The Department does not expect that the proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed rule, if adopted, would increase flexibility for all small-entity transportation employers and their service agents by allowing them to use electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping to meet part 40 requirements. Use of electronic documents, electronic signatures, and electronic recordkeeping would be voluntary for affected small entities, which will provide added flexibility to these entities in meeting the part 40 requirements. For these reasons, and as explained in more detail in the preamble to this proposed rule, the Secretary certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Consequently, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required for this proposed rule.
Unfunded Mandates
The Secretary has examined the impact of the final rule under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). This NPRM does not trigger the requirement for a written statement under sec. 202(a) of the UMRA because this rulemaking does not impose a mandate that results in an expenditure of $100 million (adjusted annually for inflation) or more by either State, local, and tribal governments in the aggregate or by the private sector in any one year. In fact, by providing an alternative to traditional paper-based records, the proposed rule would be expected to reduce costs to regulated parties, including State and local entities ( e.g., public transit authorities, and public works departments) whose employees are subject to testing and that choose to use electronic documents as opposed to paper-based documents.
Environmental Impact
The DOT has analyzed the environmental impacts of this action pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. ) and has determined that it is categorically excluded pursuant to DOT Order 5610.1C, “Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts” (44 FR 56420, October 1, 1979). Categorical exclusions are actions identified in an agency's NEPA implementing procedures that do not normally have a significant impact on the environment and therefore do not require either an environmental assessment (EA) or environmental impact statement (EIS). This proposed rule would amend the transportation industry drug testing program procedures regulation to permit the use of electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping. This action is covered by the categorical exclusion listed at 23 CFR 771.118(c)(4), “[p]lanning and administrative activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction, such as: . . . promulgation of rules, regulations, directives . . .” The Department does not anticipate any environmental impacts, and there are no extraordinary circumstances present in connection with this rulemaking.
Executive Order 13132: Federalism
The Secretary has analyzed the final rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132: Federalism. Executive Order 13132 requires Federal agencies to carefully examine actions to determine if they contain policies that have federalism implications or that preempt State law. As defined in the order, “policies that have federalism implications” refer to regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
Most of the regulated parties under the Department's drug testing program are private entities. Some regulated entities are public entities ( e.g., transit authorities and public works departments); however, as noted above, this proposal would reduce costs of the Department's drug testing program and provide additional flexibility for regulated parties. Accordingly, the Secretary has determined that the proposed rule, which would allow but not require use of electronic signatures and recordkeeping, does not contain policies that have federalism implications.
Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments
Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 6, 2000) requires Federal agencies to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by tribal officials in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications.” “Policies that have tribal implications” as defined in the Executive order, include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and the Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes.” This proposed rule does not have tribal implications. The proposed rule will also not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175.
Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) requires that DOT consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the PRA. Instead, there would likely be a significant reduction in the burden hours required for information collection 2105-0529, Procedures for Transportation Drug and Alcohol Testing Program, due to the ability to use electronic signatures and forms, and largely due to the ability to use an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing under part 40. We request comments on this issue. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a currently valid OMB control number.
Privacy Act
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received in any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.) For information on DOT's compliance with the Privacy Act, please visit https://www.transportation.gov/privacy.
5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4)
As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this proposed rule can be found at the entry for RIN 2105-AF01 in the Department's Portion of the Unified Agenda of Regulatory and Deregulatory Affairs, available at https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202404&RIN=2105-AF01 .
Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023
In accordance with Compliance with Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 (Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2023, Pub. L. 118-5, div. B, title III) and OMB Memorandum (M-23-21) dated September 1, 2023, the Department has determined that this proposed rule is not subject to the Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 because it will not increase direct spending beyond specified thresholds.
List of Subjects
49 CFR Part 40
Administrative practice and procedures, Alcohol abuse, Alcohol testing, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Laboratories, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
49 CFR Part 199
Alcohol testing, Drug testing, Pipeline safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department proposes to amend 49 CFR parts 40 and 199 as follows:
PART 40—PROCEDURES FOR TRANSPORTATION WORKPLACE DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING PROGRAMS
1. The authority for part 40 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 102, 301, 322, 5331, 20140, 31306, and 54101 et seq.
2. In §40.3, add the definitions of “Electronic signature” and “Written or in writing” in alphabetical order to read as follows:
§40.3 What do the terms used in this part mean?
* * * * *
Electronic signature. A method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 112 Stat. 2681-749, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note).
* * * * *
Written or in writing. Printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of §40.4.
3. Add §40.4 to read as follows:
§40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
(a) Applicability. This section applies to all documents required by this part, except for the CCF. An electronic CCF may be used only if it has been approved for use by the Department of Health and Human Services and is used in compliance with §40.40(c)(5).
(b) Electronic records or documents. Any person or entity required to generate, maintain, or exchange and/or transmit documents to satisfy requirements in this part may use electronic methods to satisfy those requirements.
(c) Electronic signatures. (1) Any person or entity required to sign or certify a document to satisfy the requirements of this part may use an electronic signature, as defined in §40.3.
(2) Any available technology may be used that satisfies the requirements of an electronic signature as defined in §40.3.
(d) Electronic document requirements. Any person or entity may use documents signed, certified, generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods, as long as the documents accurately reflect the information otherwise required to be contained in them.
(1) Records, documents, or signatures generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods satisfy the requirements of this section if they are capable of being retained, are used for the purpose for which they were created, and can be accurately reproduced within required timeframes for reference by any party entitled to access.
(2) Records or documents generated electronically satisfy the requirements of this section if they include proof of consent to use electronically generated records or documents, as required by 15 U.S.C. 7001(c).
(e) Confidentiality and security. When using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form to include protecting against destruction, deterioration, and data corruption.
4. In §40.25, revise paragraph (g) to read as follows:
§40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
* * * * *
(g) The release of information under this section must be in any written form that ensures confidentiality. As the previous employer, you must maintain a written record of the information released, including the date, the party to whom it was released, and a summary of the information provided.
* * * * *
5. In §40.79, revise paragraph (a)(9) to read as follows:
§40.79 How is the collection process completed?
(a) * * *
(9) Send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. Keep Copy 3 for at least 30 days, unless otherwise specified by applicable DOT agency regulations.
* * * * *
6. In §40.97, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text, (c)(1) introductory text, and (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40. 97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
* * * * *
(c) As a laboratory, you must report laboratory results directly, and only, to the MRO at his or her place of business. You must not report results to or through the DER or a service agent ( e.g., C/TPA).
(1) Negative results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF which has been signed by the certifying scientist, or you may provide the laboratory results report electronically.
* * * * *
(2) Non-negative and rejected for testing results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF that has been signed by the certifying scientist. In addition, you may provide the laboratory results report following the format and procedures set forth in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
* * * * *
7. In §40.111, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.111 When must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
* * * * *
(b) When the employer requests a summary in response to an inspection, audit, or review by a DOT agency, you must provide it unless the employer had fewer than five aggregate test results. In that case, you must send the employer a report indicating that not enough testing was conducted to warrant a summary.
* * * * *
8. In §40.127, revise paragraph (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF or the electronic laboratory results report that conveys the negative laboratory test result.
* * * * *
9. In §40.129, revise paragraphs (b) introductory text and (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative drug test results?
* * * * *
(b) Before you report a verified negative, positive, test cancelled, refusal to test because of adulteration or substitution, you must have in your possession the following documents:
* * * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF, containing the certifying scientist's signature.
* * * * *
10. In §40.163, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text and (e) to read as follows:
§40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
* * * * *
(c) If you do not report test results using Copy 2 of the CCF for the purposes of this section, you must provide a written report for each test result. This report must, as a minimum, include the following information:
* * * * *
(e) You must retain a signed or stamped and dated copy of Copy 2 of the CCF in your records. If you do not use Copy 2 for reporting results, you must maintain a copy of the signed or stamped and dated written report in addition to the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2. If you use the electronic data file to report negatives, you must maintain a retrievable copy of that report in a format suitable for inspection and auditing by a DOT representative.
* * * * *
11. In §40.167, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.167 How are MRO reports of drug test results transmitted to the employer?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(1) You must transmit a legible image or copy of either the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2 or the written report (see §40.163(b) and (c)).
* * * * *
12. In §40.185, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.185 What and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
* * * * *
(b) You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF, which has been signed by the certifying scientist.
* * * * *
13. In §40.187, revise paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) to read as follows:
§40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(iv) * * *
(C) As the laboratory that tests the primary specimen to reconfirm the presence of the adulterant found in the split specimen and/or to determine that the primary specimen meets appropriate substitution criteria, report your result to the MRO using a copy of Copy 1 of the CCF.
* * * * *
14. In §40.191, revise paragraph (d) introductory text to read as follows:
§40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(d) As a collector or an MRO, when an employee refuses to participate in the part of the testing process in which you are involved, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the CCF (including, in the case of the collector, printing the employee's name on Copy 2 of the CCF), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures that the refusal notification is immediately received. As a referral physician ( e.g., physician evaluating a “shy bladder” condition or a claim of a legitimate medical explanation in a validity testing situation), you must notify the MRO, who in turn will notify the DER.
* * * * *
15. In §40.193, revise paragraph (b)(3) to read as follows:
§40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of specimen for a drug test?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(3) As the collector, you must send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or the next business day.
* * * * *
16. In §40.205, revise paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) to read as follows:
§40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(1) If the problem resulted from the omission of required information, you must, as the person responsible for providing that information, supply in writing the missing information and a statement that it is true and accurate. For example, suppose you are a collector, and you forgot to make a notation on the “Remarks” line of the CCF that the employee did not sign the certification. You would, when the problem is called to your attention, supply a signed statement that the employee failed or refused to sign the certification and that your statement is true and accurate. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-Federal form or an expired Federal form, you must provide a signed statement ( i.e., a memorandum for the record). It must state that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT drug test, and that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control. The statement must also list the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-Federal forms or expired Federal forms for DOT tests. For this flaw to be corrected, the test of the specimen must have occurred at an HHS-certified laboratory where it was tested consistent with the requirements of this part. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
17. In §40.225, revise paragraph (a) and add paragraphs (d) and (e) to read as follows:
§40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
(a) The DOT Alcohol Testing Form (ATF) must be used for every DOT alcohol test. The ATF must be a three-part carbonless manifold form or an electronic ATF that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. The ATF is found in appendix G to this part. You may view this form on the ODAPC website ( https://www.transportation.gov/odapc ).
* * * * *
(d) As an employer, you may use an electronic ATF that meets the following requirements:
(1) The electronic ATF must be identical in form and content to the ATF found in appendix G to this part.
(2) The electronic ATF must meet the requirements of §40.4(d).
(3) The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT.
(4) If an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results (see §40.253(g)), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout.
(e) As an employer, BAT, or STT using an electronic ATF, you must establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form.
18. In §40.255, revise paragraph (a)(5)(i) to read as follows:
§40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(i) You may transmit the results using Copy 1 of the ATF, in person, by telephone, or by electronic means. In any case, you must immediately notify the DER of any result of 0.02 or greater by any means that ensures the result is immediately received by the DER. You must not transmit these results through C/TPAs or other service agents.
* * * * *
19. In §40.261, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(c)(1) As a BAT or an STT, or as the physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation, when an employee refuses to test as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the ATF (or in a separate document which you cause to be attached to the form), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. You must make this notification directly to the DER (not using a C/TPA as an intermediary).
* * * * *
20. In §40.271, revise paragraph (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-DOT form, you must, as the person responsible for the use of the incorrect form, certify in writing that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT alcohol test. You must also provide a signed statement that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control, and the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-DOT forms for DOT tests. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
21. In §40.365, revise paragraphs (b)(13) and (14) and add paragraph (b)(15) to read as follows:
§40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(13) For any service agent, directing or recommending that an employer fail or refuse to implement any provision of this part;
(14) With respect to noncompliance with a DOT agency regulation, conduct that affects important provisions of Department-wide concern ( e.g., failure to properly conduct the selection process for random testing); or
(15) For a service agent, failing to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system. PART 199—DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING
22. The authority citation for part 199 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 5103, 60102, 60104, 60108, 60117, and 60118; 49 CFR 1.53.
23. In §199.3:
a. Designate the introductory text as paragraph (b); and
b. Add paragraph (a).
The addition reads as follows:
§199.3 Definitions.
(a) Terms used in this part have the same meaning as in 49 CFR 40.3.
* * * * *
24. Add §199.4 to read as follows:
§199.4 Electronic documents, records, and signatures.
Electronic documents, records, and signatures may be used to comply with this part provided they meet the requirements specified in 49 CFR part 40.
25. In §199.117, revise paragraph (a) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.117 Recordkeeping.
(a) Each operator shall keep the records in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for the periods specified by this section or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater; and will permit access to the records as provided by §190.203.
* * * * *
26. In §199.119, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.119 Reporting of anti-drug testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual Management Information System (MIS) report to PHMSA of its anti-drug testing using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
27. In §199.227, revise paragraph (b) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.227 Retention of records.
* * * * *
(b) Period of retention. Each operator shall maintain the records in accordance with the following schedule or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater:
* * * * *
28. In §199.229, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.229 Reporting of alcohol testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual MIS report to PHMSA of its alcohol testing results using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
Signed on: Thursday, October 3, 2024.
Pete Buttigieg,
Secretary of Transportation.
[FR Doc. 2024-23427 Filed 10-11-24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P
See More
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Most Recent Highlights In Environmental
NewsSafe Drinking WaterChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishWisconsinFocus Area
2026-05-04T05:00:00Z
Wisconsin adds requirements to federal lead and copper drinking water rule
Effective date: May 1, 2026
This applies to: Public water systems
Description of change: The Wisconsin Department of Natural Resources (department) finalized amendments to align state regulations with the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA’s) updated lead and copper control requirements for drinking water. While most of the amendments conform to federal standards, the state has additional standards. The department also:
- Requires community water systems to make four contact attempts (two more than federal requirements) by two different means for elementary schools and childcare facilities to schedule lead monitoring,
- Requires public water systems on reduced annual monitoring to analyze and report the same number of sample results for copper and lead (instead of the federal requirements that only half of the copper samples are analyzed),
- Requires public water systems undergoing temporary treatment or source water changes (unregulated by EPA) for more than 30 days to notify the department 10 days before the planned change or as soon as possible for an unplanned emergency change,
- Requires groundwater system water suppliers that request to limit their entry point sampling to obtain prior approval from the department,
- Requires water suppliers that provide point-of-use treatment devices for the corrosion control treatment compliance flexibility option to submit a written plan to the department (not required by the federal rule),
- Grants the department the authority to require analysis of total and dissolved lead during distribution system and site assessments where the federal rule doesn’t provide this authority to the state,
- Requires water suppliers that request to invalidate a reported sample result to provide substantial evidence that the sample meets one of the invalidation criteria in the rule, and
- Combines the lead and copper monitoring waivers into one waiver and requires public water systems to complete at least two 6-month rounds of standard tap water monitoring (for which the federal rule only requires one 6-month round).
NewsDistrict of ColumbiaChange NoticesChange NoticeCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalAir PermittingFocus AreaEnglishAir Programs
2026-05-04T05:00:00Z
District of Columbia updates odor control permit rules
Effective date: April 10, 2026
This applies to: Entities required to obtain an operating air permit under Nuisance Odor Regulations
Description of change: The District of Columbia’s Department of Energy and Environment (DOEE) finalized a rulemaking that allows sources of nuisance odors to implement odor controls before obtaining an operating air permit under 20 DCMR Section 200.
To qualify, an entity must obtain from the DOEE written approval of the controls in the Odor Control Plan (OCP) decision letter. Additionally, the source must apply for an operating permit under 200.2 within 60 days of receiving an OCP decision letter.
Related state info: Clean air operating permits state comparison
NewsChange NoticesChange NoticeCaliforniaMobile Emission SourcesCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalFocus AreaEnglishAir Programs
2026-05-04T05:00:00Z
California permanently adopts emergency vehicle rules
Effective date: April 1, 2026
This applies to: New vehicle and engine manufacturers
Description of change: The California Air Resources Board (CARB) permanently adopted the Emergency Vehicle Emissions Regulations, which CARB adopted in 2025 as a temporary measure.
The rule reverts the emission standards and requirements for vehicle and engine manufacturers to the regulations in effect before the adoption of:
- Advanced Clean Cars II (ACC II), and
- Heavy-Duty Engine and Vehicle Omnibus Low NOx (Omnibus).
CARB allows manufacturers to comply with ACC II and Omnibus requirements voluntarily.
In 2025, the Environmental Protection Agency revoked CARB’s waivers to implement the ACC II, Omnibus, and Advanced Clean Trucks rules.
NewsHazardous WasteIndustry NewsWaste GeneratorsWaste ManifestsWaste/HazWasteWaste HandlersWasteEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)TSD FacilitiesEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-04-28T05:00:00Z
Hazardous waste manifests: Hybrid vs. fully electronic
More industries are embracing the exclusive use of electronic platforms. For example, digital payments are replacing cash, news sites are going fully online, and cloud storage is eclipsing external computer storage. And, based on recent proposed rulemaking, hazardous waste manifests may join the list.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) proposed the Paper Manifest Sunset Rule in March 2026, planning to shift to electronic-only manifests for tracking hazardous waste that’s regulated by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
If the proposed rule is finalized, regulated entities will have to track all hazardous waste shipments electronically. Specifically, generators, transporters, and receiving facilities could only use hybrid or fully electronic manifests on the Hazardous Waste Electronic Manifest System (e-Manifest).
So, what are the differences between hybrid and fully electronic manifests? Let’s compare the distinctions and explore some of the benefits that electronic manifests can offer.
What’s a hybrid manifest?
EPA initially established the hybrid manifest for generators that couldn’t fully participate in electronic manifests when the e-Manifest launched in 2018. The hybrid manifest combines paper and electronic manifests, allowing generators that aren’t registered in e-Manifest or don’t have an EPA identification (ID) number to sign printed copies of electronic manifests.
Here’s the general hybrid manifest process:
- The first transporter initiates an electronic manifest in e-Manifest. A hard copy of the electronic manifest is printed out, and the generator and initial transporter sign the paper copy.
- The generator keeps a signed paper copy on-site. The transporter keeps a signed paper copy with the shipment until it’s delivered to the receiving facility.
- From that point forward, the initial transporter and all subsequent waste handlers track the shipment in e-Manifest (using electronic signatures and electronic transmissions).
- The manifest is complete when the receiving facility or exporter electronically signs it on e-Manifest.
What’s a fully electronic manifest?
The fully electronic manifest is tracked completely online. All handlers — generators, transporters, and receiving facilities or exporters — must have an EPA ID number and be registered in e-Manifest to use the fully electronic manifest.
The entire process is conducted on e-Manifest:
- The manifest is created electronically in e-Manifest.
- All handlers electronically sign the manifest in e-Manifest.
- The manifest is complete when the receiving facility or exporter electronically signs it on e-Manifest.
What benefits do electronic manifests offer?
Regardless of whether EPA’s rule is finalized as is, electronic manifests offer hazardous waste handlers a range of benefits. Consider the following potential perks.
Compliance with existing regulations
Many handlers are already required to embrace electronic manifesting. In July 2024, EPA finalized the e-Manifest Third Rule, which requires:
- Large quantity generators and small quantity generators to register for e-Manifest,
- Exporters to submit manifests and continuation sheets to e-Manifest (and pay the associated fees), and
- Waste handlers to submit manifest-related reports and data corrections to e-Manifest.
Streamlined recordkeeping for generators
Hazardous waste handlers using e-Manifest automatically meet the recordkeeping requirements to maintain records of manifests (paper or electronic) since the manifests are retained electronically in the system.
This eliminates the need to keep hard copies. It also provides a centralized place where handlers can access these documents at any time.
However, the provision doesn’t apply to generators using hybrid manifests; they must keep the initial paper copies of the electronic manifest for 3 years.
Reduced costs
Embracing electronic manifesting removes the costs associated with printing paper manifests from EPA-approved sources.
Keep in mind, there’s an unavoidable cost for receiving facilities and exporters. These entities have to pay user fees for each manifest they submit to e-Manifest.
Proactive preparation
EPA’s proposed Paper Manifest Sunset Rule would prohibit the use of paper manifests 2 years after the publication of a final rule. Hazardous waste handlers who transition to using only electronic manifests now will be better prepared to comply with future regulations. It gives businesses time to coordinate resources and address any unexpected issues.
Key to remember: Do you know the differences between hybrid and fully electronic hazardous waste manifests? The distinctions could be the difference between compliance and noncompliance.
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EPA publishes first round of expiring TSCA CBI claims
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published the first list of expiring Confidential Business Information (CBI) claims for information submitted under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA). The list covers CBI claims that expire from June 22, 2026, to July 31, 2026.
What are expiring CBI claims?
The Frank R. Lautenberg Chemical Safety for the 21st Century Act (which became law in June 2016) set an automatic 10-year expiration for most CBI claims made under TSCA. The first round of claims submitted since the act took effect will expire in June 2026.
EPA allows businesses to request extensions of CBI protection for up to another 10 years.
How do I know if my CBI claims are expiring?
EPA will notify businesses of expiring CBI claims directly through the Central Data Exchange (CDX), the agency's electronic reporting platform.
The agency will also release public lists of upcoming expiring CBI claims monthly on the “CBI Claim Expiration” webpage. EPA encourages businesses to review the lists to verify whether any of their claims are included.
How do I request an extension of expiring CBI claims?
Businesses seeking to extend a CBI claim beyond its expiration date must submit an extension request at least 30 days before the claim expires using the newly launched TSCA Section 14(e) CBI Claim Extension Request application in EPA’s CDX.
Here’s the general process:
- EPA notifies the business of an expiring CBI claim directly through CDX and via the public lists on the “CBI Claim Expiration” webpage.
- The business submits a request for extension through EPA’s CDX at least 30 days before the CBI claim expires. Requests must comply with the substantiation requirements at 40 CFR 703.5(a) and (b).
- EPA reviews the submission and either grants or denies the request.
What are the possible outcomes?
If EPA approves the extension request, the information in the CBI claim will remain protected for up to another 10 years.
If EPA denies the extension request, the agency can publicize the information in the claim 30 days after notifying the submitter in CDX. Additionally, if a business doesn’t submit an extension request at least 30 days before the expiration date, EPA may publicize the information without notifying the submitter.
Key to remember: EPA published the first round of expiring CBI claims for information submitted under TSCA. Businesses must submit extension requests to keep the information protected.
Most Recent Highlights In Transportation
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North Dakota establishes AST regulations
Effective date: April 1, 2026
This applies to: Owners and operators of aboveground storage tanks (ASTs) and liquid fuel storage tanks
Description of change: The Department of Environmental Quality adopted technical standards and corrective action requirements for ASTs. The department also approved amendments to the registration dates and fee categories of the Petroleum Tank Release Compensation Fund for liquid fuels storage tanks.
Related state info: Aboveground storage tanks (ASTs) state comparison — ASTs
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Ohio finalizes sewage sludge amendments
Effective date: March 1, 2026
This applies to: Facilities regulated by the sewage sludge program
Description of change: The Ohio Environmental Protection Agency finalized changes to the sewage sludge program through its 5-year review of the regulations. The approved amendments:
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New Mexico adopts Clean Transportation Fuel Program rules
Effective date: April 1, 2026
This applies to: Transportation fuel produced in, imported into, or dispensed for use in New Mexico
Description of change: The New Mexico Environment Department finalized regulations to implement the Clean Transportation Fuel Program (CTFP) to reduce the carbon intensity of transportation fuel (including gasoline and diesel). The program covers transportation fuel producers, importers, and dispensers.
The CTFP:
- Establishes annual statewide carbon intensity standards that apply to transportation fuel (e.g., gasoline and diesel) produced, imported, and dispensed for use in New Mexico;
- Allocates credits and calculates deficits for regulated entities based on the fuel’s carbon intensity; and
- Sets up a marketplace for selling and purchasing credits to comply with the carbon intensity standards.
The first compliance period runs from April 1, 2026, to December 31, 2027. The first compliance period report is due by April 30, 2028. Annual compliance reports will be due by April 30 for the previous calendar year.
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Maine lists materials covered for packaging stewardship program
Effective date: March 3, 2026
This applies to: Entities subject to the Stewardship Program for Packaging Regulations
Description of change: The Maine Department of Environmental Protection’s amendments to the Stewardship Program for Packaging Regulations (06-096 C.M.R. Chapter 428) include:
- Aligning the rules with changes made by An Act to Improve Recycling by Updating the Stewardship Program for Packaging (L.D. 1423), and
- Adding Appendix A — The Packaging Material Types List to the Stewardship Program for Packaging Regulations.
L.D. 1423:
- Excludes certain commercial, cosmetic, medical, environmental, dangerous, hazardous, and flammable product packaging from the program requirements;
- Excludes packaging of products related to public health and water quality testing from the program requirements;
- Requires the department to adopt a process for approving a producer payment system; and
- Updates definitions for clarity.
Appendix A defines packaging material and designates the material types readily recyclable as applicable. It may also designate materials as compostable or reusable.
NewsWaste/HazWasteChange NoticesChange NoticeWasteCaliforniaEnvironmentalSolid WasteEnglishFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
California adopts permanent illegal disposal rules
Effective date: March 4, 2026
This applies to: Entities that handle, transfer, compost, transform, or dispose of solid waste
Description of change: CalRecycle made permanent the current illegal disposal emergency regulations, allowing enforcement agencies to take action against any person who illegally disposes of solid waste.
The rule also:
- Adds the land application activities to the regulations, making the activities subject to the permitting tier structure and associated requirements (i.e., operator filing requirements, state minimum standards, recordkeeping, and enforcement agency inspection requirements); and
- Amends sampling and recordkeeping for solid waste facilities, operations, and activities.
Most Recent Highlights In Safety & Health
NewsWest VirginiaChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishUnderground Injection ControlFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
West Virginia establishes fee schedule for UIC Program
Effective date: March 4, 2026
This applies to: Underground Injection Control (UIC) Program permittees
Description of change: This rule establishes the schedules of fees for carbon dioxide capture and sequestration authorized by the West Virginia Department of Environmental Protection’s (WVDEP’s) Division of Water and Waste Management.
EPA granted primacy to the WVDEP to implement the UIC Program for Class VI wells in February 2025.
NewsGreenhouse GasesChange NoticesChange NoticeColoradoCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalFocus AreaEnglishAir Programs
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
Colorado extends timeline to comply with GHG intensity targets
Effective date: April 14, 2026
This applies to: Small operators in the oil and gas sector
Description of change: The Colorado Air Quality Control Commission revised the intensity targets for reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions for small oil and gas operators (those with less than 45 thousand barrels of oil equivalent (kBOE) production in 2025). The commission extended the first deadline to 2030 for small operators to meet applicable intensity requirements.
However, small operators must still submit the intensity plan for the 2027 targets, which is due by June 30, 2026.
Related state info: Clean air operating permits state comparison — Clean air operating permits
NewsWater PermittingChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsColoradoEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
Colorado finalizes state dredge and fill permit regulations
Effective date: March 30, 2026
This applies to: Projects that require preconstruction notification or compensatory mitigation
Description of change: The Colorado Water Quality Control Division finalized rules for implementing a state dredge and fill discharge authorization program established by HB24-1379. The program covers state waters that aren’t subject to federal dredge and fill permitting requirements under Section 404 of the Clean Water Act.
The division will continue issuing Temporary Authorizations until August 31, 2026. After that, applicants must apply for coverage under General Authorizations. The division already accepts applications for Individual Authorizations.
Related state info: Construction water permitting — Colorado
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2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
New York adds wastewater cybersecurity rules
Effective date: March 26, 2026
This applies to: Wastewater treatment facilities
Description of change: The New York State Department of Environmental Conservation added cybersecurity regulations for wastewater treatment facilities. The rules:
- Require all State Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (SPDES) permittees to report cybersecurity incidents,
- Require publicly owned treatment works (POTWs) to establish, maintain, and implement an Emergency Response Plan and certify compliance with the provisions annually by March 28;
- Establish baseline cybersecurity control requirements;
- Add network monitoring and logging for certain POTWs with design flows of 10 million+ gallons per day; and
- Require wastewater treatment plant operators to complete a minimum number of training hours within their existing required hours on cybersecurity to renew certification every 5 years.
NewsHazardous WasteWaste/HazWasteChange NoticesChange NoticeWasteSpecial WasteCaliforniaEnvironmentalEnglishFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
California permanently adopts EPA’s conditional exemption for airbag waste
Effective date: March 6, 2026
This applies to: Airbag waste handlers and transporters
Description of change: The California Department of Toxic Substances Control permanently adopted the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA’s) interim final rule that allows airbag waste handlers and transporters to meet less stringent hazardous waste requirements (e.g., not manifesting the waste) if they meet certain conditions. Once the airbag waste is received at a collection facility or designated facility for proper disposal, it must be managed as hazardous waste.
The scope of the rule applies to all airbag waste, including recalled airbag inflators.
Related state info: Hazardous waste generators — California
Most Recent Highlights In Human Resources
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2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
New Jersey extends polystyrene foam exemption
Effective date: March 12, 2026
This applies to: Certain polystyrene foam food service products
Description of change: The New Jersey Department of Environmental Protection extended the exemption from the Single-Use Paper and Plastic Carryout Bags and Polystyrene Foam Food Service Products Rules for certain polystyrene foam products from May 4, 2026, to May 4, 2027. It applies to these polystyrene foam products:
- Trays used for raw or butchered meat or fish that’s sold from a refrigerator or similar retail appliance;
- Food products pre-packaged by the manufacturer in a polystyrene foam food service product;
- Polystyrene foam food service products that are used for the health or safety of hospital, nursing home, or correctional facility patients or residents; and
- Any other polystyrene foam food service product as determined needed by the department.
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2026-04-16T05:00:00Z
Effluent limitations: FAQs for direct dischargers of industrial wastewater
Facilities across the country conduct industrial activities that generate wastewater containing pollutants and then release it directly into nearby surface waters, such as streams, rivers, or lakes. However, before any industrial wastewater can be discharged from a site, the facility must obtain a National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) uses effluent limitations as the primary method to regulate direct discharges of industrial wastewater into waters of the United States. These restrictions are incorporated into NPDES permits.
Meeting effluent limitations is the key to compliance with NPDES permits. But like other environmental regulations, these standards can get complex quickly without a solid foundation of understanding. We’ve compiled common FAQs to help you become fluent in effluent limitations.
What’s effluent?
There’s no specific statutory or regulatory definition of “effluent.” Thankfully, a 1997 document from EPA entitled Terms of Environment: Glossary, Abbreviations, and Acronyms, Revised December 1997 (EPA 175-B-97-001) provides clarity, defining effluent as “wastewater — treated or untreated — that flows out of a treatment plant, sewer, or industrial outfall.”
What’s the difference between effluent guidelines and limitations?
There are subtle but important distinctions between these two terms.
Effluent guidelines (also known as effluent limitations guidelines and standards or ELGs) are the national industrial wastewater discharge standards established by EPA for all facilities in an industrial category.
The federal agency develops effluent guidelines based on the performance of the best available technology that’s economically achievable for an industry. Notably, effluent guidelines are technology-based; they’re not based on risk or impacts to receiving waters (i.e., water quality-based).
Federal effluent guidelines (40 CFR Subchapter N) for direct dischargers of industrial wastewater are implemented through the NPDES permitting program.
Effluent limitations are any restrictions imposed “on quantities, discharge rates, and concentrations of pollutants” from industrial wastewater discharges (122.2). Simply put, effluent limitations are the specific numeric and non-numeric requirements developed for facilities to comply with the effluent guidelines. Unlike effluent guidelines, effluent limitations may be both technology- and water quality-based.
Most states issue NPDES permits, except for the District of Columbia, Massachusetts, New Hampshire, and New Mexico, where EPA serves as the permitting authority. The permit writer develops effluent limitations for NPDES permits and issues them to facilities. The permit may be general (covering multiple facilities with similar operations and discharges) or individual (customized with site-specific conditions).
What’s the bottom line? Effluent guidelines aren’t directly enforceable permit conditions, whereas effluent limitations are.
What are the types of effluent limitations?
Two categories of effluent limitations may appear in NPDES permits:
- Technology-based effluent limitations (TBELs), and
- Water quality-based effluent limitations (WQBELs).
TBELs are based on available treatment technologies and require facilities to meet a minimum level of treatment of pollutants in wastewater discharges.
WQBELs apply only when TBELs aren’t enough to achieve water quality standards. States develop total maximum daily loads (TMDLs). A TMDL is the maximum amount of a pollutant that can be discharged into a waterbody while still meeting the water quality standards. Specific portions of the TMDL are then allotted to permitted facilities (called wasteload allocation). Facilities can’t release more than their allocated amounts.
Any applicable wasteload allocations are incorporated into a facility’s NPDES permit.
Do facilities have to use specific control technologies?
Although EPA’s effluent guidelines are based on the use of a specific control technology, facilities aren’t required to install the same technology system. As long as they comply with the standards, facilities may implement other treatment technologies.
Key to remember: Understanding effluent limitations is key to complying with industrial wastewater discharge permits.
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2026-04-16T05:00:00Z
EPA proposes major changes to coal combustion residuals rules
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a proposed rule on April 13, 2026, to revise the existing regulations governing the disposal of coal combustion residuals (CCR) in landfills and surface impoundments as well as the beneficial use of CCR.
Who’s impacted?
The proposed rule affects coal-fired electric utilities and independent power producers subject to the CCR disposal and beneficial use regulations at 40 CFR Part 257.
What are the changes?
Significant changes the EPA proposes include:
- Adding an option for facilities to certify the closure of legacy CCR surface impoundments by CCR removal that were closed before November 8, 2024, under regulatory oversight;
- Expanding the eligibility criteria for facilities to defer CCR closure requirements until site-specific determinations are made for legacy surface impoundments that were closed before November 8, 2024, under regulatory oversight;
- Exempting CCR dewatering structures (used to dewater CCR waste for the disposal of CCR elsewhere) from federal CCR regulations (Part 257);
- Rescinding all CCR management unit (CCRMU) requirements or revising the existing CCRMU regulations;
- Allowing permit authorities to make site-specific determinations regarding certain requirements during permitting for CCR units complying with federal CCR groundwater monitoring, corrective action, and closure requirements under a federal or an approved-state CCR permit; and
- Revising the beneficial use requirements by:
- Removing the environmental demonstration requirement for non-roadway use of more than 12,400 tons of unencapsulated CCR; and
- Excluding these beneficial uses from federal CCR regulations (Part 257):
- CCR used in cement manufacturing at cement kilns,
- Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) gypsum used in agriculture, and
- FGD gypsum used in wallboard.
Key to remember: EPA plans to make significant amendments to the coal combustion residuals requirements.
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2026-04-14T05:00:00Z
What to know about the EPA’s proposed manifest sunset rule
The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is taking another major step toward modernizing hazardous waste tracking. The Agency’s proposed “manifest sunset rule” would officially phase out paper hazardous waste manifests and require the exclusive use of the e-Manifest system. For employers, especially those generating or managing hazardous waste, it’s a fundamental shift in how waste shipments are documented, tracked, and audited.
Since 2018, EPA’s e-Manifest system has been available as a digital alternative to paper manifests. Over the years, the agency has added requirements pushing the industry toward adoption, including mandatory registration and electronic data submission. But despite those efforts, many companies have continued to rely on paper manifests, either out of habit, convenience, or because parts of their waste chain weren’t ready to go digital. EPA even states in the proposed rule that less than one percent of all e-manifest users have completely switched to digital manifest. The proposed sunset rule is designed to close that gap. Once finalized, it would set a firm deadline (24 months) after which paper manifests would no longer be allowed.
Why EPA wants to eliminate paper manifests
EPA’s reasoning is pretty straightforward. Paper manifests are slower, easier to lose, and more prone to errors. They rely on manual handling and delayed processing, which can create gaps in tracking and compliance. A fully electronic system, on the other hand, allows for real-time visibility, standardized data entry, and faster correction of mistakes. It also gives regulators a clearer, more immediate picture of what’s happening across the entire waste life cycle.
Addressing one of the biggest digital barriers: signatures
One overlooked part of the proposed rule is how EPA is trying to solve one of the biggest barriers to going fully digital, which is signatures in the field. Anyone who has dealt with manifests knows that the weak point is often the hand-off between the generator and the transporter, especially when drivers don’t have system access or reliable connectivity. To address that, EPA is proposing new functionality that would allow users to sign manifests using quick response (QR) codes or even short message service (SMS). In practice, this could mean a driver scans a QR code or receives a text prompt, then completes the signature process directly from their phone. So, no login or full system access needed. EPA is also exploring the ability to use SMS and QR-based tools to make updates to manifest data without needing full system permissions. That’s a big deal operationally, because it removes one of the most common bottlenecks in needing a registered user at a specific site to make even minor corrections.
Operational challenges companies should expect
With that said, moving to a fully digital system still comes with potential issues. It requires coordination across your entire operation. Generators, transporters, and disposal facilities all have to be aligned and capable of using the system effectively. If one party in that chain struggles, it can create delays or compliance issues for everyone involved. There’s also an upfront investment to consider. Companies may need to upgrade internal systems, ensure reliable connectivity, and train employees in new work processes. For organizations with multiple sites or field operations, which can take some planning. But over time, many of those burdens are expected to decrease. Electronic signatures, reusable templates, and centralized record-keeping can significantly reduce administrative work.
One of the biggest shifts employers will notice is the level of visibility. With paper manifests, there’s often a lag between shipment and final documentation. In a digital system, that lag disappears. Information becomes available almost immediately, and regulators have access to the same data. That means errors or discrepancies are easier to find and harder to ignore.
The good news is that companies don’t have to wait for the final rule to start preparing. Taking a close look at your current manifest process is a good first step. If paper is still a major part of your workflow, that’s a clear signal that changes are coming. Making sure your e-Manifest account is fully set up and that employees understand how to use it, will go a long way in avoiding future disruptions.
Keys to remember: The EPA’s proposed Paper Manifest Sunset Rule would set a firm date to phase out paper hazardous waste manifests and require that all covered shipments be tracked through the agency’s electronic e‑Manifest system, in which the Agency says will improve hazardous‑waste tracking and transparency while reducing administrative burden and saving regulated entities roughly $28.5 million per year.
NewsIndustry NewsCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleFocus AreaEnglishAir PermittingAir ProgramsUSA
2026-04-13T05:00:00Z
How incinerators are permitted: A look at the regulatory framework and EPA’s new streamlining proposal
Incinerators in the United States operate under a complex permitting framework designed to protect air quality, public health, and the environment. Under the Clean Air Act (CAA), facilities that burn waste must meet strict emission standards, maintain operating controls, and follow extensive monitoring and reporting rules. These requirements ensure that incineration, while a valuable tool for waste management, wildfire mitigation, and disaster recovery, remains safe and consistent with federal air quality objectives. Against this backdrop, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) recently proposed a rule to streamline permitting for specific types of incinerators used in wildfire prevention and disaster cleanup, a move that could reduce delays for state and local governments.
The regulatory basis for incinerator permitting
Most incinerators fall under Section 129 of the CAA, which mandates EPA to establish performance standards and emission guidelines for categories of solid waste combustion units. These standards govern pollutants such as particulate matter, carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, lead, cadmium, mercury, hydrogen chloride, and dioxins/furans. Operators must also conduct emissions testing, maintain continuous monitoring equipment, track operational parameters, and submit regular compliance reports.
Permitting generally occurs through Title V operating permits, which consolidate all applicable air quality requirements into a single enforceable document. A Title V permit typically requires annual certifications, detailed recordkeeping, periodic emissions tests, and reporting of deviations. While the Title V program doesn't impose new standards, it ensures that incinerators comply with all existing federal and state air quality rules.
Different categories of incinerators, such as large municipal waste combustors (LMWC), small municipal waste combustors (SMWC), commercial and industrial solid waste incinerators (CISWI), and other solid waste incinerators (OSWI), have distinct requirements. These subcategories reflect variations in unit size, waste composition, and operational design, and each has its own subpart under EPA’s air quality regulations.
Air curtain incinerators: A special case
Air curtain incinerators (ACIs), which burn wood waste, yard debris, and clean lumber, occupy a niche segment of the permitting landscape. They use a mechanized “curtain” of air to increase combustion efficiency and reduce particulate emissions compared to open burning. However, their regulatory treatment has historically been inconsistent.
Because ACIs fit partly within several existing subparts, operators often face confusion about which monitoring, opacity limits, and reporting duties apply. Overlap across four regulatory categories can create delays, particularly during emergencies when ACIs are deployed to remove vegetative fuels that increase wildfire risk or to process debris after storms.
EPA’s emergent focus on streamlining
In March 2026, EPA announced a proposal to consolidate the regulatory requirements for ACIs used solely to burn wood-derived materials into a single subpart under Section 129 of the CAA. The proposal would also allow these ACIs to operate without a Title V permit unless located at a facility that otherwise requires one.
EPA stated that the change would “cut red tape” and provide clarity for state, local, and Tribal governments, allowing them to respond more effectively to natural disasters and conduct wildfire mitigation activities without unnecessary administrative delays. The agency emphasized that unprocessed debris contributes to poor air and water quality and poses safety risks, particularly in post disaster environments.
Context: Broader federal actions on disaster-related incineration
The proposal follows earlier federal steps to ease the temporary use of incinerators during emergencies. In 2025, EPA issued an interim final rule permitting CISWI units to burn nonhazardous disaster debris for up to 8 weeks without prior EPA approval, a provision intended to accelerate cleanup after hurricanes, wildfires, and floods. These units must still operate their pollution control equipment, and extensions beyond 8 weeks require EPA authorization.
Such measures reflect the increasing volume of debris associated with severe weather events and the need for rapid, environmentally sound disposal mechanisms. The current proposal for ACIs builds on these efforts by targeting the specific regulatory bottlenecks associated with vegetative and wood waste disposal.
Looking ahead
EPA’s streamlined permitting proposal doesn't alter emission standards but rather clarifies and simplifies administrative pathways. If finalized, it may make ACIs more accessible during periods of heightened wildfire risk and in the critical early stages of disaster recovery.
Key to remember: At its core, the permitting system for incinerators aims to balance environmental protection with operational flexibility. The new proposal underscores EPA’s recognition that, in emergency contexts, speed matters but so does environmental stewardship.
New Network Poll
We have aisles that are defined by design i.e. racking/ shelving placement, but are not marked with tape or paint. Is this a violation?
May 04, 2026
According to 29 CFR 1910.22(b) and 1910.176(a), OSHA simply requires permanent aisles and passageways to be appropriately marked. Here is an excerpt from a 2/14/1977 OSHA letter of interpretation: “The wording of the standard, 29 CFR 1910.22(b)(2), that aisles and passageways be appropriately marked, does not require marking by painted yellow lines only. Painted yellow lines are usually recognized as the most convenient and inexpensive way to mark aisles and passageways since the lines normally last several years without maintenance or repainting.
“Other appropriate methods such as marking pillars, powder stripping, flags, traffic cones, barrels and many other devices are considered appropriate as long as recognition of such is included in the vehicle operator and employee training programs. However, where the need exists and there are no appropriate markings, citations will be issued.”
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2025-12-05T06:00:00Z
EPA’s 2026 regulatory shift: How environmental managers can stay ahead
The clock is ticking for environmental teams. By 2026, several new EPA regulations will reshape compliance obligations for U.S. companies. Organizations that act now will avoid costly penalties and operational disruptions.
What’s changing and why it matters
Although EPA has been deregulating or loosening some requirements, there are still some standards being tightened across multiple fronts in the coming year:
- Renewable fuel standards (RFS): The EPA proposed higher volume requirements for 2026, including 24.02 billion renewable identification numbers (RINs), up nearly 8% from 2025. This increase pushes stricter expectations on fuel producers and organizations purchasing renewable fuels.
- Stormwater multi-sector general permit (MSGP): A new MSGP set to take effect by February 2026 will require quarterly PFAS indicator monitoring, expanded benchmark sampling, and resiliency measures in stormwater control designs.
- PFAS Reporting under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA): TSCA Section 8(a)(7) mandates PFAS manufacturing and import data collection beginning in April 2026, through October 2026, with extended deadlines for certain small manufacturers.
Failure to prepare could lead to fines, reputational damage, supply chain disruptions, and permit delays. Companies that weave compliance planning into their 2026 strategy will be positioned not just to meet legal deadlines but to sustain operations smoothly.
Key areas of impact
- Renewable fuel standards (RFS) and air emissions The proposed increase in 2026 Renewable Identification Numbers (RIN) volumes, from 24.02 billion to 24.46 billion for 2027, signals tightening air and fuels policy that affects fuel use and emissions accounting.
- Stormwater management The upcoming 2026 MSGP requires expanded quarterly PFAS monitoring, new benchmark triggers, corrective action plans, and integration of climate resilience in design standards.
- PFAS disclosure (TSCA Section 8(a)(7)) Manufacturers and importers of PFAS must submit electronic reporting of usage, volumes, disposal, and exposure data between April and October 2026, with extensions available for smaller operations.
Steps to take now
- Audit compliance programs: Cross-check operations against RIN inventory, stormwater permits, and TSCA reporting duties.
- Upgrade monitoring and recordkeeping: Implement robust electronic systems to track PFAS, stormwater quality, fuel volumes, and emissions.
- Staff training: Educate teams on PFAS obligations, new stormwater protocols, and RFS structures.
- Engage regulators early: Comment on proposed rules, consult during permit drafting, and flag issues during the notice-and-comment period.
Looking ahead
The EPA’s 2026 updates reflect a trend toward increased transparency and environmental accountability. Companies that treat compliance as strategic will not only avoid enforcement but also gain resilience and stakeholder trust.
Key to remember: Start planning now. Early action on EPA rule changes will save time, money, and headaches when enforcement begins.
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2026-04-02T05:00:00Z
EPA releases final NESHAP for chemical manufacturing area sources
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule on April 1, 2026, amending the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) for Chemical Manufacturing Area Sources (CMAS). The NESHAP controls hazardous air pollutant (HAP) emissions from facilities that manufacture a range of chemicals and products, such as inorganic chemicals, plastics, and synthetic rubber.
Who’s impacted?
The final rule applies to nine area source categories in the chemical manufacturing sector that are regulated by the CMAS NESHAP (40 CFR 63 Subpart VVVVVV).
What are the changes?
EPA’s final rule:
- Establishes leak detection and repair requirements for equipment leaks and heat exchange systems in organic HAP service,
- Adds detectable emissions monitoring standards for pressure vessels in organic HAP service and emission management practice standards for pressure relief devices (PRDs) in organic HAP service,
- Prohibits closed vent systems in organic HAP service from bypassing an air pollution control device (APCD), and
- Requires recurring performance testing of non-flare APCDs to demonstrate compliance with process vent and storage tank provisions.
The final rule also mandates electronic reporting for notifications of compliance status (NOCs), performance test reports, and periodic reports. Facilities must submit these reports through the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI) on EPA’s Central Data Exchange.
What didn’t change?
Significantly, the final rule doesn’t add previously proposed regulations for area sources that use ethylene oxide (EtO) to produce materials described by code 325 of the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS).
EPA states that it intends to address the regulation of EtO from area sources and major sources in one final action.
What are the compliance timelines?
Existing facilities must comply with the amendments by April 1, 2029.
New facilities (those that begin construction or reconstruction after January 22, 2025) have to comply with the changes by April 1, 2026, or upon startup, whichever is later.
Additionally, facilities must start electronically submitting:
- Performance tests by June 1, 2026;
- NOCs by August 31, 2026; and
- Periodic reports by April 1, 2029.
Key to remember: EPA’s final HAP emissions rule for chemical manufacturing area sources adds new requirements for certain processing equipment and systems.
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2026-02-13T06:00:00Z
EPA reverses Endangerment Finding, scraps GHG emission standards for vehicles
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule on February 18, 2026, to rescind the 2009 Endangerment Finding and repeal all federal greenhouse gas (GHG) emission standards for:
- On-highway light-, medium-, and heavy-duty vehicles; and
- On-highway heavy-duty vehicle engines.
The final rule takes effect on April 20, 2026, and applies to vehicles and engines of model years 2012 to 2027 and beyond.
What are the changes?
Manufacturers (including importers) of new motor vehicles and motor vehicle engines no longer have to measure, report, or comply with federal GHG emission standards. The final rule removes all GHG emission regulations in 40 CFR:
- Parts 85, 86, and 600 (light- and medium-duty vehicles);
- Part 1036 (heavy-duty vehicle engines); and
- Part 1037 (heavy-duty vehicles).
The final rule also eliminates:
- All off-cycle credits for the addition of certain technological features (e.g., high-efficiency exterior lighting, waste heat recovery, and active seat ventilation); and
- EPA’s incentives for manufacturers to add a start-stop system (which automatically shuts off a vehicle’s engine during idling).
What doesn’t change?
EPA’s following regulations remain in effect for new motor vehicles and vehicle engines:
- Criteria pollutant and air toxic measurement and standards,
- Corporate Average Fuel Economy testing, and
- Associated fuel economy labeling requirements.
About the 2009 Endangerment Finding
In 2009, EPA issued two findings: the Endangerment Finding and the Cause or Contribute Finding. Collectively, these findings are referred to as the 2009 Endangerment Finding. The agency used the 2009 Endangerment Finding as the legal basis to regulate GHG emissions from new motor vehicles and vehicle engines under Section 202(a) of the Clean Air Act.
EPA regulated GHG emissions from new motor vehicles and vehicle engines through:
- Emission standards and related requirements, and
- Engine and vehicle certification requirements.
However, upon reconsideration, EPA stated that it no longer believes it has the statutory authority under Section 202(a) of the Clean Air Act to regulate GHG emissions from new motor vehicles and vehicle engines. Therefore, the agency has simultaneously rescinded the 2009 Endangerment Finding and repealed the related federal GHG emission regulations.
Key to remember: EPA's final rule eliminates the 2009 Endangerment Finding and the related GHG emission requirements for on-highway vehicles and vehicle engines.
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2025-03-03T06:00:00Z
Used oil disposal: How to stay compliant with EPA, OSHA, and your state
Used oil disposal is a critical issue for safety managers and shop supervisors in industrial settings. Whether your facility generates used oil from machinery, vehicles, or hydraulic systems, you must understand the regulatory requirements to ensure compliance and avoid hefty fines.
Used oil is not always considered hazardous waste, but improper handling, storage, or disposal can lead to regulatory violations and environmental hazards. Understanding how used oil is classified, when it is considered hazardous, and how to manage it in compliance with 40 CFR Part 279 is essential.
Let’s uncover the regulatory framework for used oil disposal, including storage requirements, transportation rules, and best practices to ensure compliance at both the federal and state levels.
What is used oil?
The EPA defines used oil as any petroleum-based or synthetic oil that has been used and is contaminated by physical or chemical impurities. Common sources of used oil in industrial operations include:
- Motor oil and lubricants from vehicle maintenance
- Hydraulic fluids used in heavy machinery
- Metalworking fluids and coolants
- Compressor oils used in air compression systems
According to EPA regulations (40 CFR Part 279), used oil is presumed to be managed under the less stringent used oil management standards unless it meets hazardous waste criteria.
Used oil becomes hazardous waste if:
- It is mixed with hazardous waste (e.g., solvents or heavy metals)
- It contains more than 1,000 parts per million (ppm) of total halogens, unless proven otherwise, or
- It is disposed of improperly, leading to environmental contamination.
If used oil is classified as hazardous waste, it must be managed in accordance with the applicable solid and hazardous waste requirements.
EPA requirements for used oil disposal
The EPA requirements for used oil consist of three different aspects, as outlined below.
1. Storage Requirements
Use leak-proof tanks and containers made of durable, non-earthen materials (e.g., steel, plastic, or concrete). Label all used oil containers with the words "Used Oil" to prevent misidentification. Prevent leaks and spills by using secondary containment systems and regularly inspecting tanks. Never mix used oil with hazardous waste unless authorized.
2. Transportation and Disposal
Used oil generators may transport up to 55 gallons of used oil to a registered collection center without an EPA ID number. If contracting a used oil transporter, ensure they have an EPA Identification Number.
Used oil must be:
- Recycled or re-refined into new oil.
- Burned for energy recovery in approved furnaces or boilers.
- Disposed of at an authorized hazardous waste facility if deemed hazardous.
3. Spill Prevention and Cleanup
Facilities storing large amounts of used oil must have a Spill Prevention, Control, and Countermeasure (SPCC) Plan. SPCC plans establish procedures, methods, and equipment requirements to prevent oil from reaching waterways, and to contain discharges of oil.
Any spills must be cleaned up immediately, and absorbent materials must be disposed of properly. Rags and shop towels contaminated with hazardous materials may be classified as hazardous waste.
OSHA regulations for handling used oil
While the EPA focuses on environmental compliance, OSHA (29 CFR Part 1910) regulates worker safety when handling used oil. Key OSHA requirements include:
1. Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
Workers handling used oil must wear gloves and protective clothing to prevent skin exposure. Safety goggles or face shields are also important to avoid eye contact.
2. Hazard communication (HazCom) program
Employers must label all used oil containers with appropriate hazard information and train employees on safe handling procedures and emergency response.
3. Fire and Explosion Safety
Always store used oil away from ignition sources to prevent fire hazards. Ensure storage areas are ventilated to avoid vapor buildup.
State-Specific used oil disposal regulations
Many states have stricter used oil regulations than federal laws. For example:
- California classifies used oil as hazardous waste unless it meets specific recycling criteria.
- Texas requires additional storage permits for large generators.
- New York mandates annual reporting on used oil disposal activities.
To ensure compliance, check with your state’s environmental agency for state-specific used oil disposal rules and whether used oil is considered hazardous. Additional permits for transporting or processing used oil may be necessary.
Staying compliant with used oil disposal requirements
Ensuring compliance with EPA, OSHA, and state laws is essential for safety managers and shop supervisors handling used oil. By following proper storage, transportation, and disposal practices, businesses can reduce environmental risks, improve workplace safety, and avoid costly fines.
Key to remember: By staying informed and proactive, your facility can maintain safe, sustainable, and compliant used oil management practices.
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2023-11-27T06:00:00Z
A particulate matter: Stricter emissions limits placed on lead recyclers
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule for New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) for secondary lead smelters, which include facilities that recycle lead-bearing scrap material, typically lead acid batteries. The final rule imposes stricter regulations on particulate matter (PM) emissions and adds testing, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements.
Who’s impacted?
Secondary lead smelters subject to the NSPS that were constructed, reconstructed, or modified after June 11, 1973, and on or before December 1, 2022, are regulated by 40 CFR 60 Subpart L. While PM emissions and opacity standards remain the same, the final rule adds these requirements:
- Initial performance tests of PM emissions and opacity,
- Periodic performance tests of PM emissions (every 12 months or every 24 months if conditions are met),
- Electronic submission of performance tests through EPA’s Central Data Exchange,
- Monitoring, and
- Recordkeeping and reporting.
Regulated secondary lead smelters that are constructed, reconstructed, or modified after December 1, 2022, are regulated by the newly added Subpart La, which requires the same additions to Subpart L as well as:
- Stricter PM emissions and opacity standards that apply at all times (including periods of startup, shutdown, and malfunction),
- PM standards for all process fugitive emission sources, and
- Periodic performance tests of opacity.
EPA also added Method 22 as an alternative for showing compliance with opacity standards in efforts to reduce testing burdens.
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2026-04-13T05:00:00Z
EPA delays TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS reporting timeline again
On April 13, 2026, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule that further delays the submission period for the one-time report required of manufacturers on per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) by the PFAS Reporting and Recordkeeping Rule (PFAS Reporting Rule).
This final rule pushes the starting submission period to either 60 days after the effective date of a future final rule updating the PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027, whichever is earlier.
Who’s impacted?
Established under Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Section 8(a)(7), the PFAS Reporting Rule (40 CFR Part 705) requires any business that manufactured (including imported) any PFAS or PFAS-containing article between 2011 and 2022 to report. Covered manufacturers and importers must submit information on:
- Chemical identity, uses, and volumes made and processed;
- Byproducts;
- Environmental and health effects;
- Worker exposure; and
- Disposal.
What’s the new timeline?
The opening submission period was moved from April 13, 2026, to either 60 days after the effective date of a future final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027, whichever is earlier.
Most manufacturers have 6 months to submit the report. Small manufacturers reporting only as importers of PFAS-containing articles have 1 year.
| TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS Reporting Rule submission period | ||
|---|---|---|
| Start date | End date | |
| Most manufacturers | 60 days from effective date of final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) | 6 months from start date or July 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) |
| Small manufacturers reporting solely as PFAS article importers | 60 days from effective date of final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) | 1 year from start date or January 31, 2028 (whichever is earlier) |
Why the delay?
In November 2025, the agency proposed updates to the PFAS Reporting Rule. EPA has delayed the reporting period to give the agency time to issue a final rule (expected later this year).
Key to remember: EPA has delayed the starting submission deadline for the TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS Reporting Rule from April 2026 to no later than January 2027.
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2026-04-23T05:00:00Z
Federal government reschedules medical marijuana
Medical marijuana has been reclassified into a lower drug category, placing it into the same classification as some prescription painkillers.
Attorney General Todd Blanche issued an order on April 23 moving medical marijuana from Schedule I of the Controlled Substances Act to Schedule III, a class of drugs with a moderate to low potential for dependence, that includes ketamine, Tylenol with codeine, and anabolic steroids. Schedule III drugs can be obtained with a prescription.
Under the order, products containing marijuana approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and marijuana products regulated by a state medical marijuana law are now in the lower drug category.
Rescheduling the drug into a lower classification will support research into marijuana safety and use of the drug for medical purposes, the attorney general noted in a press release.
Impact on the workplace
The order doesn’t address how the rescheduling of medical marijuana impacts compliance with other federal laws, but to avoid the risk of a discrimination claim under the federal Americans with Disabilities Act, employers in states where medical marijuana is legal should treat individuals using medical marijuana as they would treat any individual using a prescription medication.
This includes having a discussion with the employee about accommodations, which may include off-duty use of medical marijuana.
In states where medical marijuana isn’t legal, employers would only need to consider accommodations for use of marijuana products approved by the FDA.
Recreational marijuana considerations
The order doesn’t legalize recreational marijuana, but does announce a June 29 hearing to evaluate broader changes to marijuana’s status under federal law.
The order notes that it doesn’t apply to synthetically derived THC, such as Delta-10 products. The final order notes that synthetically derived THC is outside of the definition of marijuana.
The order also establishes a federal licensing system for state medical marijuana manufacturers and dispensaries. It notes that states where medical marijuana is legal have established systems to regulate the sale and use of medical marijuana.
How does this affect safety-sensitive jobs?
The Drug Enforcement Administration’s reclassification order doesn’t address the impact the change would have on federal drug testing regulations. Specifically, it doesn’t offer insights into Department of Transportation (DOT) drug testing of truck drivers, airline pilots, pipeline operators, and others in safety-sensitive positions.
Before any changes can be implemented by the DOT, drug testing procedures in 49 CFR Part 40 must go through the rulemaking process.
Key to remember: The federal government has moved medical marijuana to a lower classification of drug. To reduce the risk of a discrimination claim, employers in states where medical marijuana is legal should treat it as a prescription medication to lower the risk of a discrimination claim. Employers in all states should consider accommodations for FDA-approved marijuana products.
NewsIndustry NewsIn-Depth ArticleExempt Carrier AuthorityFocus AreaOperating AuthorityFleet OperationsEnglishTransportationUSA
2022-08-31T05:00:00Z
What are exempt for-hire carriers exempt from?
With carriers looking for additional revenue streams, many otherwise private and new carriers wonder whether they can become “exempt” for-hire carriers.
The “exempt for hire” designation is for property carriers that carry certain “exempt commodities,” but do so for compensation. The designation is a holdover from the Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC). Most of the commodities are minimally processed agriculture items, but there’s a fair number of surprises – both in what’s included and what’s not.
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) provides a relatively short list of items that are not exempt in 49 CFR 372.115. The agency provides a much more robust list of both exempt and non-exempt commodities in Administrative Rule 119.
Exempt carriers are not required to have a motor carrier or MC number designating for-hire authority. However, exempt carriers are required to have a USDOT number. In order to maintain an exempt for-hire status, the carrier must never haul a commodity that is not exempt for compensation.
Do exempt carriers need to have proof of insurance?
Carriers that haul exempt commodities are required to have the minimum level of financial responsibility required by 49 CFR 387, and their insurance provider must provide the carrier with an MCS-90 endorsement. However, the insurance need not be on file with the FMCSA. Many states have insurance requirements both for the amount required and the need to carry proof of coverage in the vehicle. Federally exempt for-hire carriers are not exempted from any state requirement.
Are exempt for-hire carriers required to name process agents?
Currently, exempt-for hire carriers are not required to name process agents for each state of operation as other for-hire carriers are required to do so on the BOC-3 form. That may change when the FMCSA fully implements their Unified Registration System, or URS. The system was introduced with a final rule in the summer of 2013 and included a provision requiring exempt carriers to have process agents. Much of the rule was suspended at the beginning of 2017. At some point, the agency would like to get the URS ball rolling again.
Are exempt carriers exempt from IFTA, IRP, HVUT, and UCR?
Exempt for-hire carriers are not exempt from the alphabet soup of revenue generating programs of the International Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA) allowing for the sharing of fuel tax revenue, the International Registration Plan (IRP) allowing for the sharing of vehicle registration fees, the Internal Revenue Service’s (IRS) tax for heavy vehicles that weight 55,000 pounds or more, or for the Unified Carrier Registration (UCR) revenue generating program.
Are exempt carriers exempt from the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations (FMCSRs)?
Exempt carriers are not automatically exempt from the safety regulations such as driver qualifications, drug and alcohol testing, commercial driver licenses, vehicle inspections, or the hours-of-service rules. Although livestock and agriculture commodity carriers may qualify for the hours-of-service agriculture exemption.
Key to remember: “Exempt” commodity haulers are exempt from very little. Primarily they are exempt from needing for-hire authority and designating process agents.
NewsCommercial drivers license CDLIndustry NewsIndustry NewsCommercial learners permit CLPCommercial drivers license CDLFocus AreaFleet OperationsEnglishTransportationUSA
2026-04-23T05:00:00Z
FMCSA withholds more than $73 million from New York
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) is holding back over $73 million from New York. This withholding is in response to the state failing to revoke illegally issued non-domiciled commercial learner’s permits (CLPs) and commercial driver’s licenses (CDLs).
An FMCSA audit of New York’s non-domiciled commercial license issuance procedures noted:
- A 53 percent failure rate for issued licenses that violated federal law, and
- A default system that issued 8-year licenses to drivers regardless of when their legal status expires.
According to the FMCSA, New York has failed to execute corrective actions, including taking back noncompliant non-domiciled CDLs and CLPs.
The $73,502,543 being withheld represents 4 percent of the state’s National Highway Performance Program and Surface Transportation Program Block Grant funds.
NewsIndustry NewsFleet OperationsEnglishFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleHighway use - Mileage taxFleet TaxesInternational Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA)Fleet taxesTransportationUSA
2024-09-19T05:00:00Z
Your HUT decals are expiring: Registration open Oct. 1
For carriers operating in New York, registration and decals expire December 31, 2024, for the Highway Use Tax (HUT) and Automotive Fuel Carrier (AFC) programs. Take steps now to make sure you receive your new decals before the current ones expire. You need a new certificate of registration and decal for each vehicle. And you must place the new decals on your vehicles before January 1, 2025.
The period to renew your 24th series HUT and AFC certificates of registration begins October 1, 2024. Act now to avoid delays and keep your highway use tax credentials active.
To-do before October 1
Get ready for renewal by taking the following steps now:
- File all your highway use tax returns that are due.
- Pay your taxes. The state will not issue a new certificate of registration if you owe back taxes. Before you apply to renew, make sure that you’ve paid all taxes due under any of the programs administered by the New York State Tax Department, including:
- HUT,
- personal income tax,
- International Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA),
- sales tax, and
- withholding tax.
- Create an online account if you do not already have one and you want to renew your credentials and pay online (https://www.oscar.ny.gov/).
- Make sure your vehicle registration information is correct and accurate. Review and update your information as soon as possible. Incorrect information will delay the processing of your certificates and decals.
Beginning October 1
Once the renewal period opens, renew your credentials and pay your renewal fees online with One Stop Credentialing and Registration (OSCAR).
Submit your renewal application by November 30, 2024, to make sure you receive your decals in time to place them on your vehicles before January 1, 2025.
If you are already enrolled in OSCAR, use your current OSCAR password to renew online.
If you are not enrolled, visit OSCAR, and select Enroll Now. You must have a United States Department of Transportation (USDOT) number and an employer identification number (EIN).
To renew your registration:
- Visit the OSCAR website and select HUT Renewal from the Business Type drop-down.
- Enter your information in the USDOT#, NYS Tax ID#, and Password fields, then select Log in.
- If you have 300 or fewer vehicles, choose either:
- Renew all HUT/AFC Certificates of Registration to renew all your active current series permits, or
- Select HUT/AFC Certificates of Registration to renew specific permits.
- If you have more than 300 vehicles, choose either:
- Renew all to renew all your active current series permits, or
- File renewal to renew select permits.
If you are unable to renew electronically, you may file Form TMT-1.2, Renewal Application for Highway Use Tax (HUT) and Automotive Fuel Carrier (AFC) Certificates of Registrations and Decals – 25th Series.
Key to remember: Take steps now to renew your NY HUT and ensure you receive your new decals before the current ones expire.
NewsIndustry NewsPhysical exam - Motor CarrierFleet SafetyFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleFleet OperationsUSAEnglishTransportationPhysical exam - Motor Carrier
2022-11-22T06:00:00Z
If time remains on their medical certification, can a driver be sent for a DOT exam?
A few frequently-asked questions about sending a driver for a DOT exam between medical certifications include the following:
- “Can I send my driver for a DOT exam if they were out for surgery or experienced a concerning event and have time left on their medical card?”
- “The driver was cleared by their treating provider for an injury or condition. Is that enough to let them operate a commercial motor vehicle (CMV)?”
- “My driver was off on a medical leave of absence for over 30 days. Do I need to send them for a DOT exam?”
Drivers must meet the medical qualifications standards found in 391.41 through the medical certification date. Suppose the driver’s ability to operate a commercial motor vehicle (CMV) safely is potentially affected before the medical certification expires. In that case, a carrier must send them for a DOT exam per 391.45(g) performed by a certified medical examiner (CME).
Two key points to note are:
- A driver is not required to undergo a DOT exam if off work for a medical reason or a period of time unless there is a safety concern or the medical certification expires.
- A treating clinician’s clearance to return to work is insufficient to allow the driver to operate a CMV if a specific safety risk exists. A CME must perform the DOT exam.
Risk management is important for carriers to keep in mind. A carrier should send a driver for a DOT medical certification rather than experience a crash in which a plaintiff’s attorney could question the driver’s mental or physical condition as the cause.
Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) considerations:
The ADA restricts when employers may make medical inquiries or require medical exams of employees. However, if another federal law (e.g., FMCSR) mandates such inquiries or exams, they do not violate the ADA.
Otherwise, to make such inquiries or require exams, employers need to have a reasonable belief, based on objective evidence, that a particular employee is unable to perform the job’s essential functions because of a medical condition or the employee will pose a direct threat because of a medical condition.
Simply claiming a direct threat isn’t enough. Employers need to be able to show the following:
- There is a significant risk of substantial harm;
- The specific risk is identified;
- It is a current risk, not one that is speculative or remote;
- The risk assessment was based on objective medical or other factual evidence regarding a particular individual; and
- If a genuine risk of substantial harm exists, you have to consider whether the risk can be eliminated or reduced below the level of a direct threat by reasonable accommodation.
For example, a driver was off work for three months to have multiple eye surgeries. Vision, including depth perception, is essential to operate a CMV safely. After being cleared to return to work, a DOT exam would likely be in order.
Key to remember:
If there is a reason to believe that a driver has a physical or mental condition that may pose a safety risk while operating a CMV, the carrier is required to send them for a DOT exam.
NewsIndustry NewsFleet Safety150 air-mile radius exceptionHours of ServiceFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishTransportationUSA
2022-08-29T05:00:00Z
The 150 air-mile short-haul exemptions: Widely used and widely misused
The 150 air-mile exemptions, which are in the regulations at 395.1(e)(1) and (2), allow a driver to use a time record in place of a log, provided that certain conditions are met. While this is possibly the most widely used hours-of-service exemption, it may be the most commonly misused exemption, as well.
The basics of logging exemptions
To be able to use this logging exemption in 395.1(e)(1), the driver must:
- Stay within 150 air-miles of the work reporting location for the day (draw a 150 air-mile radius circle around the work reporting location for the day — the driver must stay within this circle),
- Be back to — and released from — the work reporting location for his/her 8- or 10-hour break within 14 hours, and
- Include the starting and ending times for the day and the total hours on duty on the time record for the day.
The company must retain the time record and have it available for inspection for six months.
| Need more info? View our ezExplanation on the 150 air-mile exception. |
What if the driver goes too far or works too many hours?
If the driver cannot meet the terms of the exemption (he or she goes too far or works too many hours), the driver must complete a regular driver’s log for the day as soon as the exemption no longer applies.
If the driver has had to complete a log 8 or fewer days out of the last 30 days, the driver can use a paper log for the day. If the driver had to complete a log more than 8 days out of the last 30 days, the driver needs to use an electronic log for the day (unless one of the ELD exemptions applies, such as operating a vehicle older than model year 2000).
30-minute break exemption
When a property-carrying driver is operating under the 150 air-mile exemption, the driver is also exempt from having to take the required 30-minute break (see 395.3(a)(3)(ii)).
If the driver began the day as a 150 air-mile driver and has driven more than 8 consecutive hours without a break, and something unexpected happens and the driver can no longer use the 150 air-mile exemption, the driver must stop and immediately take the 30-minute break as well as start logging. If the driver went outside of the 150 air-mile area before the driver had 8 hours of driving without a break from driving, the driver would be expected to take the break at the appropriate time.
Common myths
Here are some of the common myths and misunderstandings about the 150 air-mile exemption:
- The driver must have the time records in the vehicle. Myth. The driver simply needs to explain to an officer during a roadside inspection that he/she does not have logs due to operating under the 150 air-mile exemption and that the required time records are back at the carrier’s office (just telling the officer, “I don’t have any logs” will lead to a violation, so the driver needs to know to provide the full explanation).
- The driver must log the previous seven days if he/she had been using this exemption and suddenly can’t. Myth. If the driver cannot use the exemption on one particular day, that is the only day the driver must use a regular log (either paper or electronic).
- Passenger-carrying drivers and drivers hauling hazardous materials cannot use this exemption. Myth. There are no restrictions on the use of this exemption, so any commercial driver can use it.
- A driver that crosses state lines cannot use this exemption. Myth. As this exemption appears in the Federal Motor Carrier Administration (FMCSA) regulations, it can be used by interstate drivers.
- Only drivers that operate out of a “company terminal” can use the 150 air-mile exemption. Myth. As long as the driver makes it back to the work reporting location for the day within the appropriate number of hours, the driver can use the exemption.
- Drivers that move from one jobsite to another every few weeks cannot use this exemption. Myth. If a driver that normally uses this exemption switches work reporting locations, the day the driver switches work reporting locations is the only day the driver cannot use the exemption.
- Drivers covered by this exemption are also exempt from the driver qualification (licensing and medical cards), driving, and vehicle inspection requirements. Myth. The only rules the driver is exempt from are the logging requirement in 395.8 and the 30-minute break requirement in 395.3.
- The driver cannot drive more than 150 miles for the day. Myth. The driver can drive as many miles as he/she wants to or needs to, as long as the driver stays within the 150 air-mile radius circle and gets back to the work reporting location within the appropriate number of hours.
- If a 150 air-mile driver gets into a vehicle with an ELD, the driver must use it. Myth. The carrier can have the driver log in and have the driver entered into the system as an “exempt driver,” or the carrier can request that the driver not log into the device and then attach a comment to the unassigned driving time generated by the driver’s movements. The comment would need to explain that the driver using the vehicle was a 150 air-mile driver who submitted a time record. It is up to the carrier to decide which option to use. If stopped for a roadside inspection, the driver will need to be able to explain to the inspector that he/she is an exempt driver using the 150 air-mile exemption, so using the electronic log is not required.
What’s different with the ‘150 air-mile non-CDL property-carrying drivers’
The 150 air-mile exemption at 395.1(e)(2) only applies to drivers that: Operate property-carrying vehicles that do not require a CDL to operate, and Stay within the 150 air-miles of their work reporting location.
If the driver stays within the 150 air-mile radius of the work reporting location, and returns to the work reporting location within 14 hours on 5 of the last 7 days, and 16 hours on 2 of the last seven days, the driver is allowed to use a time record in place of a log.
If the driver does not meet the terms of the exception, the driver will need to complete a log for the day. If the driver had to log more than 8 days out of the last 30 days, the driver will need to use an electronic log for the day. All of the other issues discussed above would apply to these drivers as well.
Managing the use
If you have drivers that use these exemptions, you will need to check time records to make sure they are complying with the appropriate time limits. You will also need to check movement records to verify that the drivers using these exemptions are staying within the mandated area (within 150 air-miles of the work reporting location for the day).
If a driver is over the hours limit, or has gone too far, you need to verify that the submitted a log for the day, either paper or electronic, depending on how many days the driver had to log out of the previous 30 days.
Verifying compliance is important
During an audit, if it is discovered that your drivers are using these exemptions incorrectly, you will be cited for not having drivers’ logs when required. Each day this occurred will be another violation, so the fine could be rather large if you are not managing the use of these exemptions!
Most Popular Highlights In Human Resources
NewsElements of a General Duty Clause ViolationBehavior Based SafetyRisk Assessment and ManagementTraining & DevelopmentEmployee RelationsSafety CommitteesIn-Depth ArticleAssociate Benefits & CompensationSafety & HealthEmployee RelationsGeneral Duty ClauseHuman ResourcesSafety and Health Programs and TrainingTrainingTrainingGeneral Duty Clause Enforcement AreasWorkplace SecurityHR ManagementEnglishFacility SecurityIndustry NewsWorkplace ViolenceActive ShooterWorkplace ViolenceGeneral Industry SafetyGeneral Duty ClauseHR GeneralistAssociate RelationsFocus AreaUSA
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
Workplace violence prevention: Working together to create safer work environments
April is Workplace Violence Awareness Month. Organizations earmark April to focus on ways to reduce the risk of a violent incident happening in the workplace. By increasing awareness and fostering a culture of safety, organizations can help protect their employees from harm.
Health care settings
Health workers worldwide face a high risk of violence, with 8–38 percent experiencing physical attacks, while others are subjected to threats or verbal abuse, according to the World Health Organization (WHO). Most incidents involve patients or visitors. Those at greatest risk include nurses, patient-facing staff, emergency room personnel, and paramedics.
Violence against health workers harms staff well-being, morale, and retention, ultimately compromising quality of care and causing significant financial loss.
An OSHA proposed rule — ‘Workplace Violence in Health Care and Social Assistance’ — was moved to Long-Term Action status, according to the Spring 2025 regulatory agenda that was released on September 4, 2025. Long-Term Actions are items under development, but the agency doesn’t expect to have a regulatory action within the 12 months after the latest edition of the agenda.
This turn of events was surprising since OSHA had been working on a standard for preventing workplace violence in health care and social assistance settings. OSHA had planned to publish the proposed rule in the Federal Register in June 2025.
Even without a federal standard addressing workplace violence in health care, several states have their own health care violence prevention laws in place.
General Duty Clause
Although OSHA doesn’t have a workplace violence standard, employers must provide a workplace that’s free of known health and safety hazards. This is addressed in OSHA’s General Duty Clause (GDC), Section 5(a) of the Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) Act.
The following elements are necessary for OSHA to prove a violation of the GDC:
- The employer failed to keep the workplace free of a hazard to which employees of that employer were exposed;
- The hazard was recognized;
- The hazard was causing or was likely to cause death or serious physical harm; and
- There was a feasible and useful method to correct the hazard.
A general duty citation must involve both the presence of a serious hazard and exposure of the cited employer’s own employees.
During a violent incident investigation, OSHA inspectors would likely gather evidence about whether an employer knew that a potential workplace violence hazard existed and whether there were feasible means to prevent or minimize such hazards. Investigators might also look at evidence of any potential whistleblower retaliation in which workers complained about workplace violence risks or reported injuries from workplace violence incidents.
Health care facilities have been cited when staff were injured by violent patients or visitors. In one case, nurses were regularly assaulted, but the hospital had no prevention program, no staff training, and no reporting system. OSHA stepped in using the GDC. Prevention could have included de-escalation training, secure facility layouts, panic buttons, and post-incident support.
Tips for preventing violent acts
In most workplaces where risk factors can be identified, violent acts can be prevented or minimized.
Building respectful workplaces is one way to do this. The most common forms of uncivil behaviors are when employees:
- Address others in disrespectful ways,
- Interrupt those who are speaking, and
- Micromanage people to an excessive degree.
Providing employees with civility training — which differs from anti-harassment training — can help to create more respectful work environments with less conflict. While civility training isn’t only focused on preventing harassment, that could be a component.
Research has shown that incivility can be a precursor to harassment. In contrast to anti-harassment training, civility training tends to give employees positive examples of how to behave, versus actions to avoid.
The training typically includes a focus on:
- Interpersonal communication,
- Conflict resolution, and
- Effective supervisory techniques.
How civility training is presented will depend on the size of the workforce, demographics, location, industry, etc. There is no one-size-fits-all approach. The point is to get employees to be more aware of how their words and actions impact others, and how they should treat everyone with respect.
It’s also important to watch for signs that someone could turn violent. While there’s no guarantee that one or more questionable behaviors equate to a potential incident, some warning signs come from someone experiencing personal or work issues.
They could be struggling financially, going through a divorce, or having health issues. Work triggers could stem from negative employment actions, like a demotion or termination, or other types of conflict.
Key to remember: April is Workplace Violence Prevention Month. Now’s the time to focus on ways to keep all employees safe.
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)USAHR ManagementEnglishFocus AreaHuman Resources
2023-09-06T05:00:00Z
Appellate court sided with employee's (almost) 3-year-delayed FMLA claim
Back in October 2018, Laffon had a medical emergency and needed some time off under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA).
Her leave lasted until November 15. Ten days after she returned to work, on November 26, her employer terminated her.
She sued, arguing that the employer retaliated against her because of her FMLA leave.
The catch? She didn't bring the suit until almost three years later.
No link between leave and termination
In court, the employer argued that there was no causal link between Laffon taking FMLA leave and her termination. Although the court documents aren't robust, they do reveal that the employer indicated that Laffon's allegations didn't show that her taking FMLA leave was a factor in the decision to terminate her. The documents showed only that the termination chronologically followed her leave.
The court agreed with the employer. It also agreed that Laffon failed to allege a willful violation of the FMLA, which would allow her to benefit from the FMLA's three-year statute of limitations.
Laffon appealed the case to the Ninth Circuit.
Statute of limitations
Under the FMLA, employees have two years from the date of the last event constituting the alleged violation for which they can bring a claim.
Those two years are extended to three years if the employer's actions were "willful." This means that an employee must show that the employer either knew or showed reckless disregard for whether its conduct violated the FMLA.
Ruling overturned
Fast forward to August 2023, when the Ninth Circuit reversed the lower court's decision. It indicated that, based on Laffon's amended complaint and liberally construing the law, her allegations establish that her leave was causally connected to her termination and that the employer's action (her termination) was willful.
Glymph v. CT Corporation Systems, No. 22-35735, Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals, August 22, 2023.
Key to remember: Terminating an employee soon after returning from FMLA leave is risky, unless there is a clear, well-documented, non-leave-related reason. Case documents did not show such a clear reason, which can also increase the risk of a willful finding. Employees have time to file claims, even years.
NewsIndustry NewsAssociate Benefits & CompensationHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Associate RelationsEnglishHR ManagementFocus AreaHuman ResourcesUSA
2025-03-27T05:00:00Z
Who can fill out FMLA forms? The answer might surprise you
One of the most common questions involving the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) that we see is: “Can ________ fill out the medical certification?”
This question stumps a lot of HR people and can be a little confusing.
It might be easier to start with who CAN’T fill out an FMLA certification. That includes your coworker, best friend, neighbor, or pet.
Jokes aside, often (but not always) a doctor fills out the FMLA certification, and since March 30 is “Doctors’ Day,” this is a great time to discuss this topic.
FMLA certification basics
Employers aren’t required to use certifications, but if they do, the U.S. Department of Labor (DOL) has five different certification forms to use for various FMLA leave situations.
The forms are as follows:
- Certification of Health Care Provider for Employee's Serious Health Condition,
- Certification of Health Care Provider for Family Member's Serious Health Condition,
- Certification of Qualifying Exigency for Military Family Leave,
- Certification for Serious Injury or Illness of a Current Servicemember for Military Family Leave, and
- Certification for Serious Injury or Illness of a Veteran for Military Family Leave.
Let’s focus on the first two, as these are the most common ones HR administrators use.
Who can fill out an FMLA certification?
The FMLA regulations describe the person who has the authority to fill out a certification as a “health care provider.” The good news is, the regulations include a lengthy list of medical professionals who fit this role.
Under the FMLA, a health care provider includes:
- A doctor of medicine or osteopathy,
- A podiatrist,
- A dentist,
- A clinical psychologist,
- An optometrist,
- A chiropractor (limited to manual manipulation of the spine as demonstrated by X-ray),
- A nurse practitioner,
- A nurse midwife,
- A clinical social worker,
- A physician assistant,
- A Christian Science practitioner, and
- Any health care provider from whom the employer or the employer's group health plan's benefits manager will accept a medical certification to substantiate a claim for benefits.
To be qualified to fill out FMLA forms, medical professionals must be authorized to practice in the state and perform within the scope of their practice. This means that the provider must be authorized to diagnose and treat physical or mental health conditions.
What about doctors in a foreign country?
If an employee or an employee's family member is visiting another country, or a family member resides in another country, and a serious health condition develops, the employer must accept a medical certification from a health care provider who practices in that country. This includes second and third opinions.
If a medical certification from a foreign health care provider is not in English, the employee may be required to provide a written translation of the certification.
Key to remember: The FMLA regulations spell out which medical professionals can fill out certification forms.
NewsDrug and Alcohol TestingDrug Free WorkplaceMarijuanaSubstance AbuseFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementEnglishHuman ResourcesIndustry NewsHR GeneralistAssociate RelationsFocus AreaUSA
2022-11-30T06:00:00Z
Drugs, alcohol, and the FMLA
The U.S. has an opioid crisis, according to the National Institutes of Health, with opioid-involved deaths at 68,630 in 2020. Based on a survey conducted by the National Safety Council, in 2019, 75 percent of employers reported that opioid use impacted their workplace.
Enter the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA). This federal law entitles eligible employees to take job-protected, unpaid leave for qualifying reasons. Substance abuse treatment, some employers might not realize, can be one of those reasons.
Serious health condition
Substance abuse can be an FMLA-qualifying serious health condition as long as it meets the definition. If an employee (or family member) is kept overnight in a health care facility or if continuing treatment is involved, a serious health condition exists.
An FMLA serious health condition involving continuing treatment includes, for example:
- A period of incapacity of more than three, consecutive, full calendar days, and any subsequent treatment.
- Any period of incapacity (or treatment for) a chronic serious health condition requiring treatments at least twice per year.
- A period of incapacity for a permanent or long-term condition in which treatment might not be effective.
- Any period of absence to receive multiple treatments for a condition that would likely result in a period of incapacity of more than three consecutive, full calendar days in the absence of treatment.
Employees in substance abuse treatment programs could be experiencing any of these. As with most FMLA leave requests, you may require that an employee provide a certification to support the need for such leave. A certification should give you enough information to determine if the condition meets the criteria.
Treatment
One of the key words here is “treatment.” An employee who is not receiving treatment for substance abuse might not be entitled to FMLA leave for substance abuse. Employees are not, however, entitled to FMLA leave, for example, due to being under the influence of drugs or alcohol even if they indicate that they are going to obtain treatment in the future. FMLA leave is only for someone actually receiving treatment.
Let’s say, for example, that Jo Employee is selected for a random drug test and tests positive for illegal narcotics. If Jo never requested FMLA leave for the condition, under your company’s drug policy, Jo could be subject to termination. If you don’t have such a policy, your actions, however, may be more limited.
The federal Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) does not protect employees who illegally use drugs, and neither the FMLA nor the ADA protects employees who are impaired on the job. The ADA could, however, protect employees who receive medication-assisted treatment (MAT) to help reduce or quit the use of opiates, even if the medication is methadone (a narcotic) and shows up in a drug test.
Key takeaway: Employees could be entitled to FMLA leave to receive treatment for a substance abuse disorder, but they are not entitled to FMLA leave simply because they are impaired by a legal or illegal substance. The details of each case need to be considered.
NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementEnglishUSAFocus AreaHuman Resources
2022-11-18T06:00:00Z
FMLA — What does (and doesn’t) count toward 1,250 hours worked?
Employers sometimes get tripped up on how to calculate the 1,250 hours worked eligibility criterion when employees need leave under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA).
Does working overtime count toward the 1,250?
Recently, someone asked if overtime hours counted toward the 1,250 hours worked requirement (it does).
All hours actually worked apply to the 1,250, whether overtime or regular time, even if the overtime is not mandatory.
The 1,250 hours is calculated in relation to when the leave will begin, not when the employee puts an employer on notice of the need for leave.
Whether an employee is allowed to work overtime, however, is generally up to company policy. As far as pay goes, remember, if the employee is nonexempt (“hourly”) and works any overtime (mandatory or voluntary) the employee must be paid time and one-half for all hours worked over 40 within the workweek.
More about FMLA leave requirements
To be eligible to take FMLA leave, employees must:
- Have worked at least 1,250 hours in the 12 months before leave is to begin,
- Have worked for their employer at least 12 months, and
- Work at a location with at least 50 company employees within 75 miles.
Whether an employee has worked the minimum 1,250 hours is calculated based on determining compensable hours or work under the Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA).
Calculating the 1,250 hours worked
When it comes to figuring out if an employee has worked at least 1,250 hours, it can get tricky. As was mentioned above, all hours worked, regular and overtime, must be counted.
Hours not worked should not be counted. The “not worked hours” include such time off as vacation time, sick leave, paid or unpaid holidays, or any other time in which an employee isn’t actually working — which can include disability, bereavement, FMLA and other forms of leave.
Once an employee meets the three eligibility criteria, including the 1,250 hours worked, for a particular leave reason, the employee remains eligible for the duration of the 12-month leave year period.
If the employee needs leave for another, different reason, eligibility would be recalculated.
Key to remember: All hours worked must be included in the 1,250 hours criterion when determining whether an employee is eligible for FMLA leave. Hours that aren’t worked (like vacation) are not included.
NewsIndustry NewsIn-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)USAHR ManagementEnglishFocus AreaHuman Resources
2023-07-20T05:00:00Z
Dealing with FMLA Monday/Friday absences
The federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) allows eligible employees to take job-protected leave for certain qualifying reasons. Over the years, employees have gotten creative when scheduling such leave, including taking it on Mondays and/or Fridays to extend a weekend.
Employers trying to oversee schedules and meet other business needs might get frustrated when employees take leave. When employees take leave in suspicious patterns, the frustration swells.
It doesn’t help that the FMLA restricts when and how employers may obtain information on the reasons behind leave.
Employers, however, do have some resources available to them when determining whether a Monday/Friday absence pattern is valid, or if the employee is abusing leave.
Recertifying FMLA leave
Once employers have a certification supporting the need for a leave, they may not request recertification more often than every 30 days, or until the minimum duration of the condition listed on the certification has expired.
Employers may, however, request recertification more often if:
- The employee requests an extension of leave,
- Circumstances described by the initial certification have changed significantly, or
- They receive information that casts doubt upon the reason for leave or the continuing validity of the certification.
When employers suspect FMLA abuse, they should review the information contained in the certification to see if the absences match. If not, they may investigate the situation further.
Asking about absence patterns
To help with this investigation, when requesting a recertification, employers may include a record of the employee’s absences and ask the health care provider if the pattern is consistent with the serious health condition.
It’s true that employers may not generally contact the employee’s health care provider directly for this information, but they may add this type of question to the medical recertification form, and direct the employee to have it completed.
Tracking absences
In such situations, employers might want to review the absence patterns of employees in question and be on the lookout for suspicious absences in the future.
Effectively tracking all leave is a must to identify patterns that could indicate FMLA leave abuse. If employers learn that an absence is not for a valid FMLA-qualifying reason, the employee is not entitled to the protections of the law for such an absence.
Key to remember: If employees are suspiciously taking FMLA leave such as on Mondays and Fridays, employers may request a recertification supporting the leave pattern.
Most Popular Highlights In Safety & Health
NewsIndustry NewsSafety and Health Programs and TrainingSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetySafety and Health Programs and TrainingIn-Depth ArticleEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-04-23T05:00:00Z
Got safety handbooks? We asked, you answered
Employee training, onboarding, ongoing reference … We asked the J. J. Keller Insights Community, a group of customers who share feedback about safety-related topics, how they use safety handbooks in their workplaces. These handbooks are purchased – not created in-house by the panelists or their company – and may focus on a specific topic, like personal protective equipment (PPE), or cover a broad range of environmental, health, and safety (EHS) topics.
More than 70 percent of respondents said they require new employees to review safety handbooks during onboarding. Another 58 percent said they use them for refresher or ongoing training, and several respondents mentioned using them for reference purposes.
Handbooks can play an important role in workplace safety and health programs. For new employees, they help set clear expectations before starting work, identify where to find vital safety information, and build safe habits early on. Handbooks also help ensure consistency by delivering the same core safety information to all employees regardless of department, shift, or trainer.
For supervisors and managers, safety handbooks are practical tools for leading toolbox talks, reinforcing or developing training materials, and addressing unsafe behaviors.
Shared versus individual handbooks
Nearly 60 percent of survey respondents bought one handbook (or a few) and shared them among employees, while 42 percent provided individual handbooks for each employee. Of those who purchased one or a few, they typically kept the handbooks in central or safety-related locations, such as:
- Main offices
- Safety or compliance offices
- EHS departments
- Classroom or training spaces
- Shared libraries near Safety Data Sheet binders or training areas
- Shop floors near work areas
Use in training programs
As mentioned, the majority of those surveyed said they use safety handbooks as part of new hire, ongoing, and refresher training. This includes the following uses:
- Building or supporting existing training programs
- Creating quizzes or review questions
- Supporting skills testing (e.g., forklift, ladder, PPE)
- Providing supplementary materials for:
- Toolbox talks
- OSHA 30 courses
- Job-specific trainings (e.g., load securement, bloodborne pathogens, Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations)
Additional survey feedback
Open-ended survey responses highlighted that some companies prefer visual presentations or digital formats over print publications, with some expressing concern that hard copy materials may quickly become outdated. Others said they use handbooks only as background reference for the EHS team and see a need to increase handbook use in their company.
Key to remember: Safety handbooks can serve as a core part of safety and health programs by giving employees and supervisors a shared reference for training conversations and expectations.
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthForklifts and Powered TrucksConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyForklifts and Powered TrucksPIT Training RequirementsIn-Depth ArticleEnglishSafe Operation of PITsFocus AreaUSA
2024-01-10T06:00:00Z
Clear vision, sound safety: The role of vision and hearing tests for forklift operators
The powered industrial truck standard at 1910.178 does not specifically address the vision and hearing requirements of operators. However, there are obviously some potential concerns and safety issues. These need to be evaluated by the employer (and appropriate medical personnel) in light of specific operations and work environment.
OSHA has issued letters of interpretation (LOI) addressing both vision (LOI dated October 20,1976) and hearing (LOI dated January 26, 1998) impaired potential forklift operators. These letters make no mention of vision or hearing requirements but do point out an ANSI B56.1 standard which suggests “an examination…include such things as field of vision, hearing, depth perception and reaction timing”, as well as “require employers to assure that operators are qualified as to visual, auditory, and mental ability to operate the equipment safely."
It should be noted that OSHA has not incorporated these ANSI requirements as an OSHA standard as of yet. That means it is up to the employer, through consultation with the appropriate medical personnel, to ensure their forklift operators can operate the equipment safely. Employers may not discriminate against an employee based on any impairment.
OSHA encourages employers to explore reasonable accommodations that will allow otherwise-qualified individuals to remain on the job while eliminating threats to the health or safety of others in the workplace.
Understand impairment concerns
Employers may have concerns for those workers with a hearing and/or vision impairment that wish to be trained as forklift operators. By recognizing potential safety issues, they can work to implement appropriate measures for the operator.
Around 15 percent of adult Americans say they have trouble hearing. For those with a hearing impairment, potential safety concerns with forklift operation may include difficulty or inability to hear the following:
- pedestrians nearby;
- horns or other warning signals;
- verbal instructions and training;
- other equipment;
- potential malfunction of the forklift; and
- emergency signals.
In addition, 18.4 percent of adult Americans are either blind or experience “a lot” or “some” visual impairment, even with corrective glasses in place . Potential safety risks associated with forklift operation for those who have a vision impairment may include:
- inadequate depth perception;
- insufficient peripheral vision;
- difficulty seeing pedestrians; and
- trouble differentiating different work environments.
Focus on appropriate measures
Hearing and vision impairment does not mean forklift operation is impossible, it simply suggests the employer may need to consider reasonable accommodations and implement appropriate measures for the operator.
For those with hearing impairments, this could include:
- installing vibrating alarms or lights to notify the operator of potential threats;
- utilizing hand signals or written instructions as a form of communication;
- increasing usage of mirrors and/or cameras to improve situational awareness; and
- providing specialized training for operators with hearing impairments.
For those with vision impairments, this could include:
- installing audible proximity detectors or sensors;
- enforcing pedestrian walkways and requiring hi-vis apparel;
- establishing clear communication methods and large signage where appropriate;
- maintaining floor markings, clear pathways, and adequate lighting; and
- providing specialized training for operators with vision impairments.
Remember the operation requirements
At a minimum, workers must receive proper training and certification before being allowed to operate a forklift. Such training includes a combination of formal instruction, practical training, and evaluation. Operators must be re-evaluated every three years, and refresher training provided to those who meet certain criteria. Also keep in mind, it is a violation of Federal law for anyone under the age of 18 to operate a forklift regardless of ability.
Key to remember
Ultimately, it is up to each employer (with a physician’s guidance, if necessary) to determine if an employee can operate the forklift in a safe manner.
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyWalking Working SurfacesIn-Depth ArticleLaddersEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-04-22T05:00:00Z
Ladders, familiar work, serious risks
Ladder-related standards consistently rank among OSHA’s top 10 most cited violations. Every year, serious injuries continue to occur, not because ladders are unsafe, but because they’re used in ways people don’t recognize them as risky.
Preventing ladder incidents starts with recognizing when everyday tasks introduce risk and making deliberate choices to use, position, and reassess ladders before unsafe habits take hold.
Ladders feel safe, until they’re not
Ladders don’t usually trigger a sense of risk because they’re seen as a part of everyday work. When tasks feel quick and familiar, people don’t always stop reassessing the setup. That’s how unsafe ladder habits with big consequences can develop, including:
- standing on the top step “just for a second;”
- reaching too far instead of climbing down;
- using whatever ladder is closest, not the right one; and
- skipping ladder inspections because “it worked last time.”
Ladder safety isn’t going away, and that’s not a bad thing
If ladder safety feels like a repeat conversation, that’s because the same risks keep showing up. New employees are hired; facilities and equipment changes, and old habits stick around longer than they should. Even experienced workers fall into this trap. Familiar tasks start to invite rushing. Rushing leads to shortcuts, and shortcuts are where ladder injuries happen.
Emphasis must be placed on recognizing the risk before the climb starts. This means knowing when a ladder is the wrong choice, repositioning is safer than reaching, and when a quick task deserves the same setup as a longer one.
Most incidents don’t start with bad intentions. They start with “just this once” decisions, one more rung, one quick reach, one skipped check. Effective ladder safety training is about breaking routines and refocusing attention on the decisions that make ladder work safer.
Routine work, repeat injuries
Ladder injuries follow a familiar pattern. They don’t usually come from unusual jobs or unexpected hazards, and they happen during everyday tasks that feel common. Injury reports often look the same, such as short tasks, quick setups, and decisions made under time pressure. The ladder didn’t fail. The setup and the decisions around it did.
Injury data from OSHA and the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS) consistently point to the same causes. That’s why the same types of ladder injuries keep occurring repeatedly, not because the hazards are unknown, but because routine work makes those hazards easier to overlook. These reasons include:
- people underestimate the risk because ladders feel familiar;
- jobs feel “too small” to stop and reset the ladder;
- time pressure encourages leaning, rushing, and overreaching; and
- experience leads to comfort, and comfort leads to shortcuts.
The rules are written in injuries
OSHA ladder requirements are built around real injury trends and are based on decades of injury data. Falls from ladders remain one of the leading causes of workplace injuries, which is why OSHA keeps ladders near the top of its enforcement priorities year after year:
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.23 defines how ladders are intended to be used, specifically prohibiting practices such as standing on the top step of a stepladder, using ladders for purposes they were not designed for, and climbing ladders that have not been inspected. These requirements exist because improper use, poor setup, and skipped inspections consistently show up in ladder fall investigations.
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.30 reinforces that preventing ladder injuries depends on training employees to recognize hazards before they climb, understand proper ladder selection and positioning, and know when a ladder is not the right tool for the task. Together, these standards emphasize that ladder injuries are not random events, they are predictable outcomes of routine decisions made during everyday work.
Small choices make a big difference
Ladder safety isn’t only about compliance. Incidents develop from a series of small, moment to moment decisions made during routine work. These choices made daily either reduce risk or quietly add to it. Ladder injuries can be avoided by taking the time to make simple improvements including:
- inspecting and securing the ladder,
- climbing down and repositioning,
- selecting the proper ladder for the task, and
- stopping when the ladder no longer feels stable or safe.
Key to remember: Take the time to choose safer setups, stay alert, and prevent routine decisions from turning into preventable injuries. When employees choose the correct ladder, reposition instead of reaching, and inspect before use, the risk of ladder injuries falls, not your employees.
NewsIn-Depth ArticleEnglishLifesaving EquipmentIndustry NewsFleet SafetySafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyAgriculture SafetyMaritime SafetyFirst Aid and MedicalFocus AreaMine SafetyFirst Aid and MedicalTransportationUSA
2023-11-02T05:00:00Z
First aid supplies: Lock ‘em up or leave ‘em out?
One way employers try to handle skyrocketing inflation is to manage first aid supplies. But do OSHA regulations allow employers to lock first aid supplies as a way to control costs?
Our experts are often asked whether OSHA permits locking first aid supplies. In a January 23, 2007, OSHA letter of interpretation (LOI), OSHA confirmed that first aid cabinets can be locked. The LOI stated, however, that first aid supplies must be readily accessible in the event of an emergency. Additionally, 29 CFR 1910.151(b) states: “In the absence of an infirmary, clinic, or hospital in near proximity to the workplace which is used for the treatment of all injured employees, a person or persons shall be adequately trained to render first aid. Adequate first aid supplies shall be readily available.”
What is “readily available”?
OSHA defines “readily available” as accessible within three to five minutes and warns that locking first aid supplies, whether kits or cabinets, may limit employee accessibility per the standard. The agency advises that if an employer was relying on first aid services not provided by a clinic, infirmary, or hospital and adequate first aid supplies were not available when needed, then the employer would be in violation of 1910.151(b).
But my supplies are disappearing at an alarming rate!
If you’re concerned with supplies being used in a manner not intended by the company, there are ways to manage supplies. For example, employers could use vending machines that allow employees to scan their badges and get basic supplies or personal protective equipment free of charge. This can help employers manage their supply chain and evaluate by whom and for what supplies are being used.
If opting to lock your first aid supplies, remember to make supplies readily accessible (within three to five minutes). This may require that additional keys for locks be made available to multiple personnel at all times when workers are present.
What supplies are required for my first aid kits?
Although their recommendations are non-mandatory, OSHA suggests using the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) for reference to determine what supplies you need to have. The contents for Class A kits listed in the ANSI standard should be adequate for small worksites. Class B kits are designed with a broader range and quantity of supplies to deal with injuries in more complex or high-risk environments (for example, larger operations or multiple operations conducted at the same location).
It’s important to note that although OSHA is still citing ANSI’s 1998 standard, an updated version of the standard, ANSI/International Safety Equipment Association (ISEA) Z308.1-2021, was approved on April 15, 2022, and went into effect on October 15, 2022. Major changes to the standard included:
- Changing tourniquet type to ensure it meets first aid needs. The equipment intended to prevent blood loss should be at least 1.5 inches wide and be effective for limb sizes 7–33 inches around.
- Making foil blankets mandatory. This measure was enacted after assessing similar international standards and recognizing “the multiple purposes that the item can serve to respond to first aid emergencies.”
- Providing further guidance on bleeding control kits. According to ISEA, these “contain more advanced first aid supplies to immediately treat life-threatening external bleeding.”
Determining what first aid supplies should be accessible depends on the workplace hazards and potential injuries. A great place to begin is by assessing your Form 300 injury logs to see the types of injuries already reported. Most employers perform risk assessments, beginning with a review of the Form 300 logs, to drive their decisions. OSHA also provides guidance to employers in 1910.151 Appendix A.
Keys to Remember
Employers must understand the accessibility risks associated with locking first aid cabinets even though OSHA and ANSI do not prohibit this practice. First aid supplies must be readily accessible (within three to five minutes) in the event of an emergency.
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthWork-Relatedness DeterminationGeneral Industry SafetyIn-Depth ArticleUSAEnglishFocus AreaInjury and Illness Recordkeeping
2021-05-05T05:00:00Z
Can you fire someone who’s out for a work-related injury?
Many supervisors have wondered if they can fire an employee who is off work because of a work-related injury. The short answer is yes, but you’ll need to provide a legitimate reason for termination in order to avoid the appearance of retaliation. In many cases, you can even fire an employee for refusing a light duty offer.
You cannot fire an employee simply for reporting an injury or filing a workers’ compensation claim, but you can fire them for other valid reasons, even after they report an injury or file a claim.
Most states allow you to fire an employee without giving a specific reason, although most employers won’t agree to terminate someone unless they have a reason. In addition, that reason needs to be supported by documentation such as written warnings.
Documentation
Laws that protect employees from discrimination or retaliation do not protect them from termination, if you have a valid reason. For example, an employee cannot be fired because of race, gender, or national origin. However, any employee could still be fired for reasons like theft, workplace violence, or violating company policies.
If an employee engaged in protected activity (such as filing a workers’ compensation claim) and you want to fire that employee, you’ll need to show that anyone would have been fired in that situation, and the protected activity was not a consideration.
To accomplish that, you’ll need to show documentation of the reason, such as repeated warnings for violating safety rules. Even if warning are delivered verbally, you should document the date and nature of the warning. Simply claiming that “I’ve warned him verbally several times” usually won’t be sufficient.
Refusing light duty
If a doctor releases an injured employee to work with restrictions, and the company offers work within those restrictions, you can expect the employee to show up for work. In many cases, refusing to report for light duty can be treated the same as a refusing to work any other shift. The employee might be fired or told that refusal to work is considered job abandonment.
However, if the employee is protected under the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), termination is not an option. The FMLA can apply to a workers’ compensation injury, and gives the employee a right to time off until he or she can return to the former position (not merely to a light duty position).
If an employee refuses a light duty offer, he or she will likely lose wage replacement benefits under workers’ compensation. Still, an employee protected by the FMLA can take unpaid leave until he or she can return to the same job, or until the 12 weeks of FMLA leave are exhausted.
Even employees protected by the FMLA can be fired for valid reasons, such as theft or violations of company policies. However, any termination should proceed with caution, and employers should consider consulting with an employment law attorney about the situation.
NewsAccident Investigation Preparation and ResponseIndustry NewsAccident Investigation - OSHASafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyAgriculture SafetyIn-Depth ArticleEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2023-05-04T05:00:00Z
Tips and tricks for interviewing witnesses after an accident
Witness interviews are critical to any accident investigation and should be taken as quickly as possible after an accident. That’s when the information is fresh, and there’s less time for witnesses to talk with each other or come up with creative versions of the events that occurred. Interviews should focus on the facts of the event, including what happened before and after, and should avoid opinions and assumptions. Ultimately, the investigator needs to know who was involved, what they were doing, what was happening at the time, and when and where the accident occurred.
Interviews should be conducted privately with no more than two interviewers. By keeping the interviews small and away from others, you have a much better chance of having a factual and productive conversation. It may be tempting to let management sit in, but they’re likely to cause the employee to clam up and not be forthcoming. Keeping this conversation informal can help employees relax and talk more freely. Simply ask what happened and let the witnesses tell the story in their own words. Remind them that the goal of this conversation isn’t to get anyone in trouble.
Ask open-ended questions like “what happened next?” and avoid leading questions. A leading question might cause someone to make things up in an attempt to answer the question. Witnesses might give their opinions, and you can make notes, but distinguish between the facts and their opinions. Along the same lines, avoid questions that suggest an accusation, such as “do you think he wasn’t paying attention?” Repeat their conclusions back to them to confirm your understanding.
Something else to remember when interviewing is that people aren’t perfect. Statements from multiple witnesses might be contradictory because both statements can’t possibly be factual. This doesn’t mean either worker is lying. It could just be how they remember the events or are worried they may get in trouble.
Suppose the incident involved a forklift operator who stopped suddenly, and the load he was carrying slid off the tines, nearly striking a pedestrian. You might hear statements like, “I didn’t see the forklift” or “the pedestrian just came out of nowhere.” Now, that may be how the witnesses remember things. But there’s probably something else going on here. Follow-up questions might be along the lines of, “what were you focused on at the time of the accident?” Maybe the pedestrian was checking his cell phone and didn’t see or hear the forklift approaching. Or perhaps the forklift operator was going too fast or failed to stop and sound the horn at an intersection. There could be several contributing factors, and you’ll want to identify all of them.
Key to remember
Witness interviews provide valuable information in determining what happened when an incident occurs. It’s essential to make the witnesses comfortable and remind them the goal of investigating is to help prevent reoccurrence, not to blame employees.
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