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NewsFleet SafetyPipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTOffice of the Secretary of TransportationHazmat SafetyRulemakingFocus AreaProposed RuleEnglishTransportationUSA
89 FR 82957 Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
2024-10-15T05:00:00Z
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Office of the Secretary
49 CFR Part 40
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
49 CFR Part 199
[Docket DOT-OST-2022-0027]
RIN 2105-AF01
Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
AGENCY: Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
SUMMARY: The Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) proposes to amend its regulations for conducting workplace drug and alcohol testing for the federally regulated transportation industry to allow, but not require, electronic signatures on documents required to be created and utilized under the regulations, the use of electronic versions of forms, and the electronic storage of forms and data. The regulatory changes would apply to DOT-regulated employers and their contractors (“service agents”) who administer their DOT-regulated drug and alcohol testing programs. Currently, employers and their service agents must use, sign and store paper documents exclusively, unless the employer is utilizing a laboratory's electronic Federal Drug Testing Custody and Control Form (electronic CCF) system that has been approved by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). DOT is required by statute to amend its regulations to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms. This rulemaking also responds to an April 2, 2020, petition for rulemaking from DISA Global Solutions, Inc. (DISA), requesting that DOT regulations be amended to allow the use of an electronic version of the alcohol testing form (ATF) for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. The proposed regulatory amendments are expected to provide additional flexibility and reduced costs for the industry while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the drug and alcohol testing regulations. In addition, DOT proposes to amend the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) regulation for conformity and to make other miscellaneous technical changes and corrections.
DATES: Comments on this NPRM must be received on or before December 16, 2024.
ADDRESSES: You may submit comments identified by Docket Number DOT-OST-2022-0027 using any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
• Mail: Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
• Hand Delivery or Courier: West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION section for instructions on submitting comments, including collection of information comments for the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Mike Huntley, Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590; telephone number 202-366-3784; ODAPCwebmail@dot.gov. If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
This NPRM is organized as follows:
I. Executive Summary
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
C. Privacy Act
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
IV. Background
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
VIII. Electronic ATF
IX. Section-by-Section Analysis
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
I. Executive Summary
Purpose and Summary of the Major Provisions
This proposed rule would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures and expand businesses' and individuals' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the Department's drug and alcohol testing regulation, 49 CFR part 40, “Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs” (part 40). Businesses and individuals subject to part 40 would continue to have the choice to use paper documents and traditional “wet” signatures. This proposed rule would also modify references to recordkeeping and reporting methods throughout part 40 to make them technologically neutral.
This proposed rulemaking responds to a statutory mandate set forth in section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271 (see 49 U.S.C. 322 note). The proposed rulemaking would take action consistent with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA) (division C, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, Pub. L. 105-277) and the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN) (Pub. L. 106-229) with regard to DOT's part 40 regulations.
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this NPRM (Docket No. DOT-OST-2022-0027), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. The Office of the Secretary (OST) recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in a cover letter or an email so that OST can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document, click on this NPRM, click “Comment,” and type your comment into the text box on the following screen.
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8 1/2 by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit comments by mail and would like to know that they reached the facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope.
OST will consider all comments and material received during the comment period in determining how to proceed with any final rule.
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as available in the docket, go to https://www.regulations.gov. Insert the docket number, DOT-OST-2022-0027, in the keyword box, and click “Search.” Next, click the “Open Docket Folder” button and choose the document to review. If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting the Docket Management Facility in Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting the Docket Management Facility.
C. Privacy Act
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to www.regulations.gov, as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices under the heading of “Department-Wide System of Records Notices”.
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority enacted in the Omnibus Transportation Employee Testing Act of 1991 (OTETA) (Pub. L. 102-143, tit. V, 105 Stat. 952) and codified at 49 U.S.C. 45102 (aviation), 49 U.S.C. 20140 (rail), 49 U.S.C. 31306 (motor carrier), and 49 U.S.C. 5331 (public transportation), as well as the Department's authority in 49 U.S.C. 322 and the PHMSA authorities specified in the proposed regulatory text for this action.
According to Public Law 115-271, the Secretary of Transportation is required to “issue a final rule revising part 40 of title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms.” (49 U.S.C. 322 note) The statute set the deadline for this action as not later than 18 months after HHS establishes a deadline for a certified laboratory to request approval for fully electronic CCFs ( Id. ) On April 7, 2022, HHS set that deadline as August 31, 2023 (87 FR 20528). HHS has extended the deadline to August 31, 2026, to enable sufficient time for all HHS-certified laboratories to identify and contract with an electronic CCF supplier or to develop an electronic CCF. The deadline for DOT's regulatory amendments would therefore be February 29, 2028.
There are two additional Federal statutes relevant to the implementation of electronic document and signature requirements.
The Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA), codified at 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 1 was enacted to improve customer service and governmental efficiency through the use of information technology. The GPEA defines an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (a) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (b) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. Id. It also requires OMB to ensure Federal agencies provide for: (a) the option of maintaining, submitting; or disclosing information electronically, when practicable; and (b) the use and acceptance of electronic signatures when practicable. The GPEA states that electronic records submitted pursuant to procedures developed under title XVII for the submission of records to Federal agencies and electronic signatures used in accordance with those procedures shall not be denied legal effect, validity, or enforceability merely because they are in electronic form. Id.
1 Division C, title XVII (sec. 1701-1710) of Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681-749, enacted on October 21, 1998.
The Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN), codified at 15 U.S.C. 7001-7031, 2 was designed to promote the use of electronic contract formation, signatures, and recordkeeping in private commerce by establishing legal equivalence between traditional paper-based methods and electronic methods. The E-SIGN Act allows the use of electronic records to satisfy any statute, regulation, or rule of law requiring that such information be provided in writing if the consumer has affirmatively consented to such use and has not withdrawn consent. Specifically, the statute establishes the legal equivalence of the following types of documents with respect to any transaction in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, whether in traditional paper or electronic form: (a) contracts, (b) signatures, and (c) other records (15 U.S.C. 7001(a)(1)).
2 Public Law 106-229, 114 Stat. 464, enacted on June 30, 2000.
IV. Background
The Department's drug and alcohol testing regulations were promulgated at a time when the ability to sign and retain official records electronically—now commonplace in many business segments—was not available. Over the course of several years, we have adopted measures that have reduced the paper documentation associated with the drug and alcohol testing program without compromising the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program. In 2003, we standardized the form for employers to report their Management Information System (MIS) aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected. 3 When creating a ONE-DOT MIS Form, we then authorized employers to submit a single standardized form via a web portal. In 2015, we issued a final rule to allow employers, collectors, laboratories, and medical review officers (MROs) to use the electronic version of the Federal Drug Testing CCF in the DOT-regulated drug testing program. 4 That final rule also incorporated into the regulations the requirement to establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons when using the electronic CCF. We also included language protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form when using the electronic CCF.
3 68 FR 43946 (July 25, 2003).
4 80 FR 19551 (Apr. 13, 2015).
Consistent with the statutory mandate in 49 U.S.C. 322 note, we propose amendments to part 40 to permit the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for drug and alcohol testing records throughout the regulation, including the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. We emphasize that electronic signatures, forms, and records would not be required; we would continue to allow paper, or hard-copy use with traditional “wet signatures.”
These proposed amendments would establish parity between paper and electronic collection and submission of information required under our regulations (and remain compatible with applicable OMB guidance on implementing electronic signatures 5 ) by allowing further use of electronic means and methods to comply with part 40 requirements. Many employers and their service agents have already instituted the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for the non-DOT regulated testing that they conduct. DOT supports this transition to a paperless system and is committed to ensuring that the movement to a partially or fully electronic part 40 is done to maximize program efficiencies and reduce costs, while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program.
5https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/2000-M-00-15-OMB-Guidance-on-Implementing-the-Electronic-Signatures-in-Global-and-National-Commerce-Act.pdf.
Electronic documents would have a high degree of forensic defensibility as long as any changes made to the document are in the document's electronic footprint, which shows when the document or signature, as applicable, was created; when, and if, changes were made; who made the changes; and when, as applicable, a document was transmitted to and received by the receiving entity. The use of electronic forms and signatures in part 40 would help DOT-regulated employers and their service agents improve their workflow efficiency through faster turnaround times for required documents. Cost savings would result through reduced printing and delivery/shipping costs, and expedited transmission of information allowing for more timely decisions. We believe this proposed rule, if adopted, would also mitigate the longstanding problems ( e.g., delays in processing times of test results, cancelling of test results, etc.) associated with illegible and lost copies of paper documents.
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
On August 5, 2022, we published an ANPRM requesting public comment on how part 40 could be amended, as required by the statute, to allow electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping (87 FR 47951). We requested information from DOT-regulated employers and their service agents regarding if and how they are already handling electronic signatures, records transmission, and records storage in their non-DOT testing programs. In addition, we requested comments and information on appropriate performance standards, and on whether particular methods or performance standards have been successful or unsuccessful. We also asked a number of general questions on the potential advantages, risks, ramifications, and required safeguards associated with the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records in the DOT drug and alcohol testing program. We asked questions about specific sections of part 40 that we anticipated would be affected by prospective changes to implement electronic signatures, forms, and records. Finally, we asked a number of questions regarding the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol tests.
We received 72 comments in response to the ANPRM, including comments from individuals, testing laboratories, MROs, and MRO organizations, substance abuse professionals (SAP) and SAP organizations, and various associations representing DOT-regulated transportation workers subject to mandatory drug and alcohol testing under part 40.
A few individuals expressed opposition to the adoption of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, citing concerns about the need for the rulemaking, risk to personal information from hackers or mismanaged electronic processes and procedures, and misuse of electronic forms and signatures. To meet our statutory mandate and in consideration of concerns about safeguarding personal information and appropriate use of the information in developing the NPRM, DOT proposes to require security measures for electronic forms and signatures used under part 40 that are the same as those currently in place for the electronic CCF specified in 49 CFR 40.40(c)(5).
Most commenters were supportive of changes to amend part 40 that would permit, but not require, the use of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping. Commenters supporting revisions to part 40 noted that electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping are used in virtually every industry today—including but not limited to the banking, insurance, medical, and legal industries. Commenters supported the use of performance standards instead of technology-specific standards to ensure that, once established, standards do not become obsolete given the rapidly evolving nature of information technology standards and practices. Commenters stated that allowing electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping would make the drug testing process much more efficient and would result in cost savings. Commenters also stated that it would be safer to store records electronically since records could be backed-up, secured, and protected from tampering and unauthorized access and use.
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
In developing this NPRM, we looked to a rule promulgated by DOT's FMCSA that permits the use of electronic methods to generate, certify, sign, maintain, or exchange records so long as the documents accurately reflect the required information and can be used for their intended purpose. (83 FR 16210, Apr. 16, 2018) The rule applies to documents that FMCSA requires entities or individuals to retain. FMCSA permits, but does not require, anyone to satisfy FMCSA requirements by using electronic methods to generate, maintain, or exchange documents. The substance of the document must otherwise comply with applicable Federal laws and FMCSA rules. FMCSA also permits, but does not require, anyone required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures, defined, as in the GPEA, as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (1) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (2) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. FMCSA allows for the use any available technology for electronic signatures, so long as the signature otherwise complies with FMCSA's requirements.
FMCSA adopted broad performance standards for electronic documents and signatures—as specified in GPEA and E-SIGN—rather than detailed, technology specific standards that would likely become obsolete with inevitable changes in information technology standards and practices. FMCSA's April 2018 rule has been in effect for more than five years, and the definitions and requirements established in that rule have stood the test of time despite the many changes that have occurred with respect to electronic documents and signatures. We are unaware of any FMCSA-regulated entities that have reported issues to FMCSA regarding the use of electronic documents or signatures to meet the requirements of the FMCSRs since the rule became effective in 2018.
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
In this NPRM, we propose to permit but not require electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping in part 40. Additionally, we propose a performance standard approach as opposed to establishing technology-specific standards. Where it is possible to do so, establishing the same or substantively similar regulatory requirements for common issues across DOT modal agencies—such as the use of electronic documents and signatures—helps the Department maintain a consistent regulatory approach for those common issues.
There are currently more than 60 references to the term “written” in part 40, and more than 20 additional references to the term “in writing.” We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing” in part 40, to eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic documentation and establish technological neutrality throughout the entirety of part 40.
FMCSA's rule does not apply to documents that individuals or entities are required to file directly with FMCSA. In its April 2018 final rule, FMCSA explained that while industry could use electronic signatures and submit information directly to the FMCSA in certain situations, 6 adapting all FMCSA systems to allow for use of electronic signatures and submissions would significantly delay the implementation of the rule for use by third parties as it would require FMCSA to develop and implement technology systems to allow for direct submission to FMCSA from regulated parties. FMCSA noted that development of such systems could take several years, and therefore saw no reason to make private parties' use of electronic signatures and records retention contingent upon FMCSA's ability to receive submissions electronically because doing so would delay potential benefits to be gained by third parties.
6 As an example, Certified Medical Examiners may use electronic signatures, if they choose to do so, to sign medical forms, certificates, and a new driver medication report. If FMCSA requests these forms, they are uploaded in portable document format (PDF) to the Medical Examiner's account associated with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners for FMCSA to access.
In contrast to FMCSA's regulations, part 40 does not require entities or individuals to submit documents directly to the Department except for MIS aggregate drug and alcohol testing data that employers subject to DOT or U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) drug and alcohol testing regulations must submit annually. Each of the various documents required and used as part of the DOT drug and alcohol testing program under part 40 ( e.g., employee drug and alcohol testing records, MRO reports and records, SAP reports and records) are documents that are created by, exchanged between, and maintained by a person or entity involved in the testing process—but are not required to be submitted directly to DOT.
As noted earlier, and specifically with respect to the required MIS data, we standardized the form for employers to report their aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected, more than 20 years ago. At that time, we authorized employers to submit the ONE-DOT MIS form via a web portal. Today, the Federal Aviation Administration, FMCSA, Federal Railroad Administration, and Federal Transit Administration permit employers to submit that same drug and alcohol testing data via the internet, and PHMSA requires that the data be submitted electronically. If employers submit the data electronically via the internet, they are not required to submit a hard copy. DOT recommends that employers have a copy of their data available (either hard copy or in electronic format) in the event an auditor or inspector requests a copy.
From the above, and because the only documents that part 40 requires to be submitted directly to the Department are already permitted to be, and in some cases required to be, submitted electronically, there is no need for us to limit the applicability of our proposal as FMCSA did in its 2018 final rule.
Several commenters noted that they already use electronic signatures and documents for their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing program, and in some cases, have done so for many years. In doing so, these commenters have had to establish appropriate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons, including protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The same general requirements were added to the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved the use of the electronic CCF for use in DOT drug testing in 2015, 7 and we propose the same requirements in this NPRM for the use of electronic signatures, documents, and recordkeeping throughout the entirety of part 40.
7 The 2015 revisions amended then §40.45(c)(5), which was redesignated as §40.40(c)(5) in the May 2023 final rule to include oral fluid testing in the DOT drug testing program (88 FR 27596, May 2, 2023).
Ensuring that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons is an important element of part 40's protections for employees that are subject to DOT's drug and alcohol testing rules. We believe that the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system should constitute the basis for the Department to start a public interest exclusion (PIE) proceeding, and propose to add this to the list of examples provided in §40.365(b).
Throughout part 40, information and documents are required to be transmitted and/or communicated between service agents ( e.g., collectors, screening test technicians (STTs) and breath alcohol technicians (BATs), laboratories, MROs, SAPs, and consortium/third party administrators (C/TPAs)), employers, and employees). Although part 40 does not currently require the party receiving these communications and/or documents to affirmatively confirm receipt of such from the sender, in some instances, regardless of whether the document is electronic or a hard copy, we believe that it may be important for the receiving party to verify that those required communications and/or documents were received.
For example, under §40.25, an employer intending to use an employee to perform safety-sensitive functions must, after obtaining an employee's written consent, request information about the employee's drug and alcohol testing record from previous DOT-regulated employers. After receiving a copy of the employee's written consent, the previous employer must immediately provide the requested information to the employer making the inquiry. If an employer is subsequently investigated/audited by the appropriate DOT mode, it may be beneficial for both the gaining employer and the previous employer to be able to affirmatively demonstrate that the employee's written consent and previous testing record were sent and received as required.
Sections 40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) require a collector or MRO (for drug tests) or a BAT, STT, or a physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation (for alcohol tests), respectively, to—when an employee refuses to participate in a part of the testing process—terminate the testing process, document the refusal, and immediately and directly notify the employer's designated employer representative (DER) by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. Because this notification of a refusal to an employer is of an urgent nature, it may be advisable to require the DER to affirmatively confirm receipt of the required notification from the collector, MRO, BAT, STT, or physician. For example, §§40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) could be amended to read “. . . immediately notify the DER by any means and ensure that the refusal notification is immediately received”.
While we are not proposing new requirements in this NPRM regarding confirmation of receipt in the sections discussed above (or in other part 40 requirements), we seek comment regarding whether it may be beneficial or advisable to do so, and if so, for which specific sections of part 40.
VIII. Electronic ATF
The ATF has been in use in the DOT alcohol testing program since 1994 (see 59 FR 7349, Feb. 15, 1994). The ATF must be used to document every DOT alcohol test. DOT regulations at 49 CFR 40.225 set forth the requirements for use of the form, and 49 CFR part 40, appendix G, contains a facsimile (reference copy) of the form. The ATF is a three-part carbonless manifold form used by DOT-regulated employers to document the testing event when testing employees subject to DOT alcohol testing. When the employee is tested, both the employee and the STT and/or the BAT will complete the ATF in various sections. The STT/BAT documents the result(s) by either writing in the screening result or attaching the screening and/or confirmation result printed by the evidential breath testing devices (EBT) onto the ATF, and then sends Copy 1 to the employer, provides Copy 2 to the employee, and retains Copy 3 for their records.
On April 2, 2020, DISA petitioned the Department to amend part 40 to allow for the use of an electronic version of the ATF for DOT mandated alcohol testing. In support of its petition, DISA stated that “The requested amendment to 49 CFR part 40 will enable a parallel process for the documentation of DOT-mandated alcohol tests aligned with the similarly situated amendment previously approved for drug testing.” DISA believes that allowing the use of an electronic ATF will result in several benefits to the industry, including “increased efficiency, security and accuracy in documentation of DOT alcohol tests; paperwork reduction; improved process for conducting a DOT alcohol test in conjunction with a DOT drug test when an electronic version of the federal CCF is used for the drug test; reduction of errors and omissions in the completion of the ATF; and improved efficiency and efficacy in the transmission and record retention of alcohol test results.”
DISA noted that non-DOT workplace breath alcohol testing has been conducted using electronic versions of an alcohol testing form that mirrors the DOT ATF for more than five years. Based on experience using those electronic forms for non-DOT testing, DISA cites improved efficiency and accuracy of documentation because: (1) employer and employee information is entered via computer and thus not dependent on reading and deciphering hand-written entries, (2) date time stamps of the testing are automated and not subject to fluctuation or error, (3) transmission of documentation on completed tests is more secure using databases accessed only via protected password and personal identification number (PIN) to authorized employers or their designated agents, and (4) transmission of test result information is faster and more secure than existing transmission options of scanning and emailing attachments or facsimile.
DISA also noted that permitting use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing “will substantially reduce cost, by eliminating the requirement for the printing and distribution of carbonless three-ply paper ATFs. The proposed electronic ATF option would still provide for printed paper images to be made available to the employee, the employer, and the alcohol technician, [but] eliminates the requirement for the more expensive carbonless 3 ply paper ATF.”
For the reasons described by DISA in its petition, and recognizing that significant benefits and cost reductions have resulted from use of the electronic CCF for drug testing, we believe that it is likewise appropriate to permit the use of electronic ATFs in part 40 for DOT-regulated testing. Permitting but not requiring the use of an electronic ATF would be consistent with our proposal to permit, but not require, the use of electronic documents and signatures throughout the entirety of part 40 as discussed above. As several commenters noted, the use of an electronic ATF has been used in non-DOT testing for 5-10 years, and the same developers of the electronic CCFs have developed the electronic ATFs. Any electronic ATF used under part 40 for DOT-regulated employees would have to be identical in form and content to the DOT ATF in appendix I to part 40. 8 Just as we imposed general confidentiality and security requirements when electronic CCFs were permitted to be used under part 40, we believe that it is necessary to include the same general requirements relating to the use of electronic ATFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
8 The ATF form was redesignated from appendix G to appendix I as part of the rulemaking process culminating in the May 2023 final rule. During that process, the form was reviewed by the public and DOT received no comment on the form.
Manufacturers of EBTs and alcohol screening devices (ASD) used in DOT alcohol tests must obtain approval from the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) and then be listed on the Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance's (ODAPC) website before those devices may be used in DOT alcohol testing.
IX. PHMSA Proposed Changes
PHMSA is proposing to amend §§199.3, 199.117, and 199.227 and to add §199.4 to conform to the proposed changes in part 40 and to clarify that the proposed changes in part 40 apply to part 199. These changes will help the readers of part 199 find the applicable regulations in part 40 with regards to the definition of terms and record keeping requirements. We also propose to amend §§199.119 and 199.229 by changing the reference of “appendix H” to “appendix J” to conform to the amendment of part 40 published on May 2, 2023.
X. Section-by-Section Analysis
Section 40.3 What do the terms used in this regulation mean?
We propose to add a definition of “electronic signature.” The rule would define an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 112 Stat. 2681-749). Including the specific cross reference to GPEA would ensure that regulated entities know that we are using GPEA's performance standard for allowing use of electronic signatures.
We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing.” The rule would define written or in writing as printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of 49 CFR 40.4. This definition would eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic methods of communication/documentation.
Section 40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
We propose to add a new §40.4 that would prescribe the requirements pertaining to electronic documents and signatures throughout part 40.
Paragraph (a) would specify that §40.4 would apply to all documents required by part 40, except for the CCF, as an electronic CCF may only be used when approved by HHS and in compliance with §40.40(c)(5). As background, before an HHS-certified laboratory can use a Federal electronic CCF for regulated specimens, the test facility must submit a detailed plan and proposed standard operating procedures for the electronic CCF system for HHS review and approval through the National Laboratory Certification Program. At the current time, several HHS-certified laboratories have received approval to use a combination electronic/paper CCF, while four laboratories have received approval to use a fully electronic CCF. As noted earlier, and in a separate section of the SUPPORT Act, HHS was required to set a deadline for certified laboratories to request approval for use of fully electronic CCFs. That deadline is now August 31, 2026.
Paragraph (b) would permit, but not require, any person or entity to use electronic methods to comply with any provision in part 40 that requires a document to be signed, certified, generated, maintained, or transmitted between parties. It would apply to all forms of written documentation, including forms, records, notations, and other documents. The substance of the document would otherwise have to comply with part 40 requirements. This would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures, greatly expanding interested parties' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (c) would permit, but not require, any entity required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures as defined in §40.3. The rule specifies that a person may use any available technology so long as the signature otherwise complies with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (d) would establish the minimum requirements for electronic documents and signatures. Any electronic document or signature would be considered the legal equivalent of a paper document or signature if it is the functional equivalent with respect to integrity, accuracy, and accessibility. In other words, the electronic documents or signatures need to accurately and reliably reflect the information in the record. They must remain accessible in a form that could be accurately viewed or reproduced according to Agency rules. As with any documents, paper or electronic, documents that are not legible—for any reason—do not satisfy the Department's requirements.
Electronic documents are not to be considered the legal equivalent of traditional paper documents if they (1) are not capable of being retained, (2) are not used for the purpose for which they were created, or (3) cannot be accurately reproduced for reference by any entity entitled to access by law, for the period of time required by the Department's recordkeeping requirements.
Paragraph (d) would also require that any electronically signed documents must incorporate or otherwise include evidence that both parties to the document have consented to the use of electronic signatures, as required by the E-SIGN Act (15 U.S.C. 7001(c)).
Paragraph (e) would require that when using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The proposed requirements are analogous to those established in the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved use of the electronic CCF in part 40.
Section 40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
Currently, paragraph (g) makes it clear that the release of information under this section must be in any written form, and the parenthetical clarifies that this can be paper-based (written, fax) or electronic (email). Under the proposed definition of “written or in writing,” there is no distinction between paper-based and electronic communications. Because “written or in writing” would mean either paper or electronic communications, we propose to remove parenthetical reference to “fax, email, letter” to eliminate redundancy and confusion. All parties can conduct their business using either paper or electronic means of documentation and communication.
Section 40.79 How is the collection process completed?
Currently, paragraph (a)(9) of this section requires the collector to “fax or otherwise transmit” Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. We propose to amend this section by removing reference to the methods of transmitting receipts, so parties can choose their own medium of communication.
Section 40.97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.111 When and how must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to amend paragraph (b) of this section to remove the references to the methods of transmitting the summary or report required by this section. Because the summary or report can be transmitted via hard copy or electronically, there is no need to specify how it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
Section 40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to remove the reference to a “letter” in paragraph (c) of this section. In paragraph (e) of this section, we propose to replace the term “letter” with “written report” for consistency with paragraph (c).
Section 40.167 How are MRO reports of drug results transmitted to the employer?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
Section 40.185 Through what methods and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (b) of this section. In addition, because Copy 1 of the CCF can be transmitted in writing or electronically, there is no need to specify the methods through which it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.
Section 40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (d) of this section as means of transmitting notification that an employee has refused to participate in part of the testing process from the collector or MRO to the DER.
Section 40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of urine for a drug test?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “send or fax” as the means for the collector to transmit copies of the CCF to the MRO and the DER in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
Section 40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a collector, laboratory, MRO, employer, or other person to supply signed statements regarding correctable problems in a drug test in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
We propose to amend this section to permit, but not require, the use of an electronic version of the DOT ATF that is identical in form and content to the form provided in appendix I to part 40. The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT, and if an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results pursuant to §40.253(g), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout. This section would also be amended to specify the same general confidentiality and security measures in §40.45 relating to electronic CCFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
Section 40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section as means of transmitting results of the alcohol confirmation test from the BAT to the DER. Similarly, there is no need to specify that Copy 1 of the ATF may be transmitted “in person, by telephone, or by electronic means.”
Section 40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (c) of this section as means of transmitting a refusal notification from a BAT, STT, or referral physician to the DER.
Section 40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a STT, BAT, employer, or other service agent to supply a signed statement regarding correctable flaws in an alcohol test in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
We propose to amend this section by adding a new paragraph (b)(15) that would identify the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system as appropriate grounds for starting a PIE proceeding.
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 (Regulatory Planning and Review)
The Secretary has examined the impact of the proposed part 40 amendments under Executive Order 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”), as supplemented by Executive Order 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) and amended by Executive Order 14094 (“Modernizing Regulatory Review”), which directs Federal agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity).
According to these Executive orders, a regulatory action is “significant” if it meets any one of a number of specified conditions, including having an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more, as adjusted every three years by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA); adversely affecting in a material way a sector of the economy, competition, or jobs; or if it raises novel legal or policy issues. The proposed amendments, which would allow the use of electronic documents and signatures, do not meet the Executive order's criteria for being a significant rule. Consequently, OMB has determined that the rulemaking action is not significant under the Executive order.
The proposed rule responds to the statutory mandate set forth in Section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271. The proposed rule would not impose new requirements on the industry; rather, it would simply permit—but not require—regulated entities to use electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, and remove outdated and obsolete references in the regulatory text. The proposed rule would not impose new costs on the industry because regulated entities would be allowed to choose to continue to use paper-based documents as they had before. The benefits of the rule would stem from savings in paper and printing expense and other efficiency gains. Examples of documents affected by this rule include, but are not limited to, records of a prospective employee's drug and alcohol testing history that employers must obtain prior to permitting that employee to perform safety-sensitive duties, MRO records and reports, SAP records and reports, and ATFs. While there is no way to estimate how many entities or individuals would change their practices given the new options, or how many documents would be affected, several commenters to the ANPRM stated that they have been using electronic documents and signatures in their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing programs for many years. While neither the benefits nor the costs of this rule can be reliably estimated, we expect this proposed rule to provide flexibility to the industry. Under this proposed rule, regulated entities would have the flexibility to conduct business using either electronic or traditional paper-based methods. We also expect regulated entities to choose technologies that would maximize benefits in accordance with their individual needs and circumstances.
Regulatory Flexibility Act and Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA)
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq. ) requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of their regulatory actions on small businesses and other small entities and minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with a population of less than 50,000. For this rulemaking, potentially affected small entities include drug testing companies (U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Sector 54 (Professional, Scientific and Technical Services), Code 541380 (Testing Laboratories and Services)) as well as DOT-regulated entities (SBA NAICS Sectors 48-49 (Transportation and Warehousing)).
The Department does not expect that the proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed rule, if adopted, would increase flexibility for all small-entity transportation employers and their service agents by allowing them to use electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping to meet part 40 requirements. Use of electronic documents, electronic signatures, and electronic recordkeeping would be voluntary for affected small entities, which will provide added flexibility to these entities in meeting the part 40 requirements. For these reasons, and as explained in more detail in the preamble to this proposed rule, the Secretary certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Consequently, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required for this proposed rule.
Unfunded Mandates
The Secretary has examined the impact of the final rule under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). This NPRM does not trigger the requirement for a written statement under sec. 202(a) of the UMRA because this rulemaking does not impose a mandate that results in an expenditure of $100 million (adjusted annually for inflation) or more by either State, local, and tribal governments in the aggregate or by the private sector in any one year. In fact, by providing an alternative to traditional paper-based records, the proposed rule would be expected to reduce costs to regulated parties, including State and local entities ( e.g., public transit authorities, and public works departments) whose employees are subject to testing and that choose to use electronic documents as opposed to paper-based documents.
Environmental Impact
The DOT has analyzed the environmental impacts of this action pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. ) and has determined that it is categorically excluded pursuant to DOT Order 5610.1C, “Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts” (44 FR 56420, October 1, 1979). Categorical exclusions are actions identified in an agency's NEPA implementing procedures that do not normally have a significant impact on the environment and therefore do not require either an environmental assessment (EA) or environmental impact statement (EIS). This proposed rule would amend the transportation industry drug testing program procedures regulation to permit the use of electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping. This action is covered by the categorical exclusion listed at 23 CFR 771.118(c)(4), “[p]lanning and administrative activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction, such as: . . . promulgation of rules, regulations, directives . . .” The Department does not anticipate any environmental impacts, and there are no extraordinary circumstances present in connection with this rulemaking.
Executive Order 13132: Federalism
The Secretary has analyzed the final rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132: Federalism. Executive Order 13132 requires Federal agencies to carefully examine actions to determine if they contain policies that have federalism implications or that preempt State law. As defined in the order, “policies that have federalism implications” refer to regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
Most of the regulated parties under the Department's drug testing program are private entities. Some regulated entities are public entities ( e.g., transit authorities and public works departments); however, as noted above, this proposal would reduce costs of the Department's drug testing program and provide additional flexibility for regulated parties. Accordingly, the Secretary has determined that the proposed rule, which would allow but not require use of electronic signatures and recordkeeping, does not contain policies that have federalism implications.
Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments
Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 6, 2000) requires Federal agencies to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by tribal officials in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications.” “Policies that have tribal implications” as defined in the Executive order, include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and the Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes.” This proposed rule does not have tribal implications. The proposed rule will also not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175.
Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) requires that DOT consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the PRA. Instead, there would likely be a significant reduction in the burden hours required for information collection 2105-0529, Procedures for Transportation Drug and Alcohol Testing Program, due to the ability to use electronic signatures and forms, and largely due to the ability to use an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing under part 40. We request comments on this issue. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a currently valid OMB control number.
Privacy Act
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received in any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.) For information on DOT's compliance with the Privacy Act, please visit https://www.transportation.gov/privacy.
5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4)
As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this proposed rule can be found at the entry for RIN 2105-AF01 in the Department's Portion of the Unified Agenda of Regulatory and Deregulatory Affairs, available at https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202404&RIN=2105-AF01 .
Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023
In accordance with Compliance with Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 (Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2023, Pub. L. 118-5, div. B, title III) and OMB Memorandum (M-23-21) dated September 1, 2023, the Department has determined that this proposed rule is not subject to the Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 because it will not increase direct spending beyond specified thresholds.
List of Subjects
49 CFR Part 40
Administrative practice and procedures, Alcohol abuse, Alcohol testing, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Laboratories, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
49 CFR Part 199
Alcohol testing, Drug testing, Pipeline safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department proposes to amend 49 CFR parts 40 and 199 as follows:
PART 40—PROCEDURES FOR TRANSPORTATION WORKPLACE DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING PROGRAMS
1. The authority for part 40 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 102, 301, 322, 5331, 20140, 31306, and 54101 et seq.
2. In §40.3, add the definitions of “Electronic signature” and “Written or in writing” in alphabetical order to read as follows:
§40.3 What do the terms used in this part mean?
* * * * *
Electronic signature. A method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 112 Stat. 2681-749, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note).
* * * * *
Written or in writing. Printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of §40.4.
3. Add §40.4 to read as follows:
§40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
(a) Applicability. This section applies to all documents required by this part, except for the CCF. An electronic CCF may be used only if it has been approved for use by the Department of Health and Human Services and is used in compliance with §40.40(c)(5).
(b) Electronic records or documents. Any person or entity required to generate, maintain, or exchange and/or transmit documents to satisfy requirements in this part may use electronic methods to satisfy those requirements.
(c) Electronic signatures. (1) Any person or entity required to sign or certify a document to satisfy the requirements of this part may use an electronic signature, as defined in §40.3.
(2) Any available technology may be used that satisfies the requirements of an electronic signature as defined in §40.3.
(d) Electronic document requirements. Any person or entity may use documents signed, certified, generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods, as long as the documents accurately reflect the information otherwise required to be contained in them.
(1) Records, documents, or signatures generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods satisfy the requirements of this section if they are capable of being retained, are used for the purpose for which they were created, and can be accurately reproduced within required timeframes for reference by any party entitled to access.
(2) Records or documents generated electronically satisfy the requirements of this section if they include proof of consent to use electronically generated records or documents, as required by 15 U.S.C. 7001(c).
(e) Confidentiality and security. When using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form to include protecting against destruction, deterioration, and data corruption.
4. In §40.25, revise paragraph (g) to read as follows:
§40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
* * * * *
(g) The release of information under this section must be in any written form that ensures confidentiality. As the previous employer, you must maintain a written record of the information released, including the date, the party to whom it was released, and a summary of the information provided.
* * * * *
5. In §40.79, revise paragraph (a)(9) to read as follows:
§40.79 How is the collection process completed?
(a) * * *
(9) Send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. Keep Copy 3 for at least 30 days, unless otherwise specified by applicable DOT agency regulations.
* * * * *
6. In §40.97, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text, (c)(1) introductory text, and (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40. 97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
* * * * *
(c) As a laboratory, you must report laboratory results directly, and only, to the MRO at his or her place of business. You must not report results to or through the DER or a service agent ( e.g., C/TPA).
(1) Negative results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF which has been signed by the certifying scientist, or you may provide the laboratory results report electronically.
* * * * *
(2) Non-negative and rejected for testing results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF that has been signed by the certifying scientist. In addition, you may provide the laboratory results report following the format and procedures set forth in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
* * * * *
7. In §40.111, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.111 When must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
* * * * *
(b) When the employer requests a summary in response to an inspection, audit, or review by a DOT agency, you must provide it unless the employer had fewer than five aggregate test results. In that case, you must send the employer a report indicating that not enough testing was conducted to warrant a summary.
* * * * *
8. In §40.127, revise paragraph (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF or the electronic laboratory results report that conveys the negative laboratory test result.
* * * * *
9. In §40.129, revise paragraphs (b) introductory text and (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative drug test results?
* * * * *
(b) Before you report a verified negative, positive, test cancelled, refusal to test because of adulteration or substitution, you must have in your possession the following documents:
* * * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF, containing the certifying scientist's signature.
* * * * *
10. In §40.163, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text and (e) to read as follows:
§40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
* * * * *
(c) If you do not report test results using Copy 2 of the CCF for the purposes of this section, you must provide a written report for each test result. This report must, as a minimum, include the following information:
* * * * *
(e) You must retain a signed or stamped and dated copy of Copy 2 of the CCF in your records. If you do not use Copy 2 for reporting results, you must maintain a copy of the signed or stamped and dated written report in addition to the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2. If you use the electronic data file to report negatives, you must maintain a retrievable copy of that report in a format suitable for inspection and auditing by a DOT representative.
* * * * *
11. In §40.167, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.167 How are MRO reports of drug test results transmitted to the employer?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(1) You must transmit a legible image or copy of either the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2 or the written report (see §40.163(b) and (c)).
* * * * *
12. In §40.185, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.185 What and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
* * * * *
(b) You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF, which has been signed by the certifying scientist.
* * * * *
13. In §40.187, revise paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) to read as follows:
§40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(iv) * * *
(C) As the laboratory that tests the primary specimen to reconfirm the presence of the adulterant found in the split specimen and/or to determine that the primary specimen meets appropriate substitution criteria, report your result to the MRO using a copy of Copy 1 of the CCF.
* * * * *
14. In §40.191, revise paragraph (d) introductory text to read as follows:
§40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(d) As a collector or an MRO, when an employee refuses to participate in the part of the testing process in which you are involved, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the CCF (including, in the case of the collector, printing the employee's name on Copy 2 of the CCF), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures that the refusal notification is immediately received. As a referral physician ( e.g., physician evaluating a “shy bladder” condition or a claim of a legitimate medical explanation in a validity testing situation), you must notify the MRO, who in turn will notify the DER.
* * * * *
15. In §40.193, revise paragraph (b)(3) to read as follows:
§40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of specimen for a drug test?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(3) As the collector, you must send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or the next business day.
* * * * *
16. In §40.205, revise paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) to read as follows:
§40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(1) If the problem resulted from the omission of required information, you must, as the person responsible for providing that information, supply in writing the missing information and a statement that it is true and accurate. For example, suppose you are a collector, and you forgot to make a notation on the “Remarks” line of the CCF that the employee did not sign the certification. You would, when the problem is called to your attention, supply a signed statement that the employee failed or refused to sign the certification and that your statement is true and accurate. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-Federal form or an expired Federal form, you must provide a signed statement ( i.e., a memorandum for the record). It must state that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT drug test, and that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control. The statement must also list the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-Federal forms or expired Federal forms for DOT tests. For this flaw to be corrected, the test of the specimen must have occurred at an HHS-certified laboratory where it was tested consistent with the requirements of this part. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
17. In §40.225, revise paragraph (a) and add paragraphs (d) and (e) to read as follows:
§40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
(a) The DOT Alcohol Testing Form (ATF) must be used for every DOT alcohol test. The ATF must be a three-part carbonless manifold form or an electronic ATF that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. The ATF is found in appendix G to this part. You may view this form on the ODAPC website ( https://www.transportation.gov/odapc ).
* * * * *
(d) As an employer, you may use an electronic ATF that meets the following requirements:
(1) The electronic ATF must be identical in form and content to the ATF found in appendix G to this part.
(2) The electronic ATF must meet the requirements of §40.4(d).
(3) The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT.
(4) If an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results (see §40.253(g)), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout.
(e) As an employer, BAT, or STT using an electronic ATF, you must establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form.
18. In §40.255, revise paragraph (a)(5)(i) to read as follows:
§40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(i) You may transmit the results using Copy 1 of the ATF, in person, by telephone, or by electronic means. In any case, you must immediately notify the DER of any result of 0.02 or greater by any means that ensures the result is immediately received by the DER. You must not transmit these results through C/TPAs or other service agents.
* * * * *
19. In §40.261, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(c)(1) As a BAT or an STT, or as the physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation, when an employee refuses to test as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the ATF (or in a separate document which you cause to be attached to the form), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. You must make this notification directly to the DER (not using a C/TPA as an intermediary).
* * * * *
20. In §40.271, revise paragraph (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-DOT form, you must, as the person responsible for the use of the incorrect form, certify in writing that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT alcohol test. You must also provide a signed statement that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control, and the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-DOT forms for DOT tests. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
21. In §40.365, revise paragraphs (b)(13) and (14) and add paragraph (b)(15) to read as follows:
§40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(13) For any service agent, directing or recommending that an employer fail or refuse to implement any provision of this part;
(14) With respect to noncompliance with a DOT agency regulation, conduct that affects important provisions of Department-wide concern ( e.g., failure to properly conduct the selection process for random testing); or
(15) For a service agent, failing to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system. PART 199—DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING
22. The authority citation for part 199 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 5103, 60102, 60104, 60108, 60117, and 60118; 49 CFR 1.53.
23. In §199.3:
a. Designate the introductory text as paragraph (b); and
b. Add paragraph (a).
The addition reads as follows:
§199.3 Definitions.
(a) Terms used in this part have the same meaning as in 49 CFR 40.3.
* * * * *
24. Add §199.4 to read as follows:
§199.4 Electronic documents, records, and signatures.
Electronic documents, records, and signatures may be used to comply with this part provided they meet the requirements specified in 49 CFR part 40.
25. In §199.117, revise paragraph (a) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.117 Recordkeeping.
(a) Each operator shall keep the records in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for the periods specified by this section or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater; and will permit access to the records as provided by §190.203.
* * * * *
26. In §199.119, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.119 Reporting of anti-drug testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual Management Information System (MIS) report to PHMSA of its anti-drug testing using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
27. In §199.227, revise paragraph (b) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.227 Retention of records.
* * * * *
(b) Period of retention. Each operator shall maintain the records in accordance with the following schedule or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater:
* * * * *
28. In §199.229, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.229 Reporting of alcohol testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual MIS report to PHMSA of its alcohol testing results using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
Signed on: Thursday, October 3, 2024.
Pete Buttigieg,
Secretary of Transportation.
[FR Doc. 2024-23427 Filed 10-11-24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P
NewsFleet SafetyPipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA), DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTOffice of the Secretary of TransportationHazmat SafetyRulemakingFocus AreaProposed RuleEnglishTransportationUSA
89 FR 82957 Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
2024-10-15T05:00:00Z
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION
Office of the Secretary
49 CFR Part 40
Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration
49 CFR Part 199
[Docket DOT-OST-2022-0027]
RIN 2105-AF01
Electronic Signatures, Forms and Storage for Drug and Alcohol Testing Records
AGENCY: Office of the Secretary, Department of Transportation (DOT).
ACTION: Notice of proposed rulemaking (NPRM).
SUMMARY: The Department of Transportation (DOT or Department) proposes to amend its regulations for conducting workplace drug and alcohol testing for the federally regulated transportation industry to allow, but not require, electronic signatures on documents required to be created and utilized under the regulations, the use of electronic versions of forms, and the electronic storage of forms and data. The regulatory changes would apply to DOT-regulated employers and their contractors (“service agents”) who administer their DOT-regulated drug and alcohol testing programs. Currently, employers and their service agents must use, sign and store paper documents exclusively, unless the employer is utilizing a laboratory's electronic Federal Drug Testing Custody and Control Form (electronic CCF) system that has been approved by the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS). DOT is required by statute to amend its regulations to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms. This rulemaking also responds to an April 2, 2020, petition for rulemaking from DISA Global Solutions, Inc. (DISA), requesting that DOT regulations be amended to allow the use of an electronic version of the alcohol testing form (ATF) for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. The proposed regulatory amendments are expected to provide additional flexibility and reduced costs for the industry while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the drug and alcohol testing regulations. In addition, DOT proposes to amend the Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) regulation for conformity and to make other miscellaneous technical changes and corrections.
DATES: Comments on this NPRM must be received on or before December 16, 2024.
ADDRESSES: You may submit comments identified by Docket Number DOT-OST-2022-0027 using any of the following methods:
• Federal eRulemaking Portal: Go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document. Follow the online instructions for submitting comments.
• Mail: Docket Management Facility, U.S. Department of Transportation, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, Washington, DC 20590-0001.
• Hand Delivery or Courier: West Building, Ground Floor, Room W12-140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting Dockets Operations.
• Fax: 202-493-2251.
To avoid duplication, please use only one of these methods. See the “Public Participation and Request for Comments” portion of the SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION section for instructions on submitting comments, including collection of information comments for the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs, Office of Management and Budget (OMB).
FOR FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT:
Mike Huntley, Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590; telephone number 202-366-3784; ODAPCwebmail@dot.gov. If you have questions on viewing or submitting material to the docket, contact Docket Services, telephone (202) 366-9826.
SUPPLEMENTARY INFORMATION:
This NPRM is organized as follows:
I. Executive Summary
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
C. Privacy Act
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
IV. Background
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
VIII. Electronic ATF
IX. Section-by-Section Analysis
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
I. Executive Summary
Purpose and Summary of the Major Provisions
This proposed rule would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures and expand businesses' and individuals' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the Department's drug and alcohol testing regulation, 49 CFR part 40, “Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs” (part 40). Businesses and individuals subject to part 40 would continue to have the choice to use paper documents and traditional “wet” signatures. This proposed rule would also modify references to recordkeeping and reporting methods throughout part 40 to make them technologically neutral.
This proposed rulemaking responds to a statutory mandate set forth in section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271 (see 49 U.S.C. 322 note). The proposed rulemaking would take action consistent with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA) (division C, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, Pub. L. 105-277) and the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN) (Pub. L. 106-229) with regard to DOT's part 40 regulations.
II. Public Participation and Request for Comments
A. Submitting Comments
If you submit a comment, please include the docket number for this NPRM (Docket No. DOT-OST-2022-0027), indicate the specific section of this document to which each comment applies, and provide a reason for each suggestion or recommendation. You may submit your comments and material online or by fax, mail, or hand delivery, but please use only one of these means. The Office of the Secretary (OST) recommends that you include your name and a mailing address, an email address, or a phone number in a cover letter or an email so that OST can contact you if there are questions regarding your submission.
To submit your comment online, go to https://www.regulations.gov/docket/DOT-OST-2022-0027/document, click on this NPRM, click “Comment,” and type your comment into the text box on the following screen.
If you submit your comments by mail or hand delivery, submit them in an unbound format, no larger than 8 1/2 by 11 inches, suitable for copying and electronic filing. If you submit comments by mail and would like to know that they reached the facility, please enclose a stamped, self-addressed postcard or envelope.
OST will consider all comments and material received during the comment period in determining how to proceed with any final rule.
B. Viewing Comments and Documents
To view comments, as well as any documents mentioned in this preamble as available in the docket, go to https://www.regulations.gov. Insert the docket number, DOT-OST-2022-0027, in the keyword box, and click “Search.” Next, click the “Open Docket Folder” button and choose the document to review. If you do not have access to the internet, you may view the docket online by visiting the Docket Management Facility in Room W12-140 on the ground floor of the DOT West Building, 1200 New Jersey Avenue SE, Washington, DC 20590-0001, between 9 a.m. and 5 p.m. ET, Monday through Friday, except Federal holidays. To be sure someone is there to help you, please call (202) 366-9317 or (202) 366-9826 before visiting the Docket Management Facility.
C. Privacy Act
In accordance with 5 U.S.C. 553(c), DOT solicits comments from the public to better inform its rulemaking process. DOT posts these comments, without edit, including any personal information the commenter provides, to www.regulations.gov, as described in the system of records notice (DOT/ALL-14 FDMS), which can be reviewed at https://www.transportation.gov/individuals/privacy/privacy-act-system-records-notices under the heading of “Department-Wide System of Records Notices”.
III. Legal Basis for the Rulemaking
This rulemaking is promulgated under the authority enacted in the Omnibus Transportation Employee Testing Act of 1991 (OTETA) (Pub. L. 102-143, tit. V, 105 Stat. 952) and codified at 49 U.S.C. 45102 (aviation), 49 U.S.C. 20140 (rail), 49 U.S.C. 31306 (motor carrier), and 49 U.S.C. 5331 (public transportation), as well as the Department's authority in 49 U.S.C. 322 and the PHMSA authorities specified in the proposed regulatory text for this action.
According to Public Law 115-271, the Secretary of Transportation is required to “issue a final rule revising part 40 of title 49, Code of Federal Regulations, to authorize, to the extent practicable, the use of electronic signatures or digital signatures executed to electronic forms instead of traditional handwritten signatures executed on paper forms.” (49 U.S.C. 322 note) The statute set the deadline for this action as not later than 18 months after HHS establishes a deadline for a certified laboratory to request approval for fully electronic CCFs ( Id. ) On April 7, 2022, HHS set that deadline as August 31, 2023 (87 FR 20528). HHS has extended the deadline to August 31, 2026, to enable sufficient time for all HHS-certified laboratories to identify and contract with an electronic CCF supplier or to develop an electronic CCF. The deadline for DOT's regulatory amendments would therefore be February 29, 2028.
There are two additional Federal statutes relevant to the implementation of electronic document and signature requirements.
The Government Paperwork Elimination Act (GPEA), codified at 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 1 was enacted to improve customer service and governmental efficiency through the use of information technology. The GPEA defines an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (a) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (b) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. Id. It also requires OMB to ensure Federal agencies provide for: (a) the option of maintaining, submitting; or disclosing information electronically, when practicable; and (b) the use and acceptance of electronic signatures when practicable. The GPEA states that electronic records submitted pursuant to procedures developed under title XVII for the submission of records to Federal agencies and electronic signatures used in accordance with those procedures shall not be denied legal effect, validity, or enforceability merely because they are in electronic form. Id.
1 Division C, title XVII (sec. 1701-1710) of Public Law 105-277, 112 Stat. 2681-749, enacted on October 21, 1998.
The Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN), codified at 15 U.S.C. 7001-7031, 2 was designed to promote the use of electronic contract formation, signatures, and recordkeeping in private commerce by establishing legal equivalence between traditional paper-based methods and electronic methods. The E-SIGN Act allows the use of electronic records to satisfy any statute, regulation, or rule of law requiring that such information be provided in writing if the consumer has affirmatively consented to such use and has not withdrawn consent. Specifically, the statute establishes the legal equivalence of the following types of documents with respect to any transaction in or affecting interstate or foreign commerce, whether in traditional paper or electronic form: (a) contracts, (b) signatures, and (c) other records (15 U.S.C. 7001(a)(1)).
2 Public Law 106-229, 114 Stat. 464, enacted on June 30, 2000.
IV. Background
The Department's drug and alcohol testing regulations were promulgated at a time when the ability to sign and retain official records electronically—now commonplace in many business segments—was not available. Over the course of several years, we have adopted measures that have reduced the paper documentation associated with the drug and alcohol testing program without compromising the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program. In 2003, we standardized the form for employers to report their Management Information System (MIS) aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected. 3 When creating a ONE-DOT MIS Form, we then authorized employers to submit a single standardized form via a web portal. In 2015, we issued a final rule to allow employers, collectors, laboratories, and medical review officers (MROs) to use the electronic version of the Federal Drug Testing CCF in the DOT-regulated drug testing program. 4 That final rule also incorporated into the regulations the requirement to establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons when using the electronic CCF. We also included language protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form when using the electronic CCF.
3 68 FR 43946 (July 25, 2003).
4 80 FR 19551 (Apr. 13, 2015).
Consistent with the statutory mandate in 49 U.S.C. 322 note, we propose amendments to part 40 to permit the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for drug and alcohol testing records throughout the regulation, including the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-authorized alcohol testing. We emphasize that electronic signatures, forms, and records would not be required; we would continue to allow paper, or hard-copy use with traditional “wet signatures.”
These proposed amendments would establish parity between paper and electronic collection and submission of information required under our regulations (and remain compatible with applicable OMB guidance on implementing electronic signatures 5 ) by allowing further use of electronic means and methods to comply with part 40 requirements. Many employers and their service agents have already instituted the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records storage for the non-DOT regulated testing that they conduct. DOT supports this transition to a paperless system and is committed to ensuring that the movement to a partially or fully electronic part 40 is done to maximize program efficiencies and reduce costs, while maintaining the integrity and confidentiality requirements of the program.
5https://www.whitehouse.gov/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/2000-M-00-15-OMB-Guidance-on-Implementing-the-Electronic-Signatures-in-Global-and-National-Commerce-Act.pdf.
Electronic documents would have a high degree of forensic defensibility as long as any changes made to the document are in the document's electronic footprint, which shows when the document or signature, as applicable, was created; when, and if, changes were made; who made the changes; and when, as applicable, a document was transmitted to and received by the receiving entity. The use of electronic forms and signatures in part 40 would help DOT-regulated employers and their service agents improve their workflow efficiency through faster turnaround times for required documents. Cost savings would result through reduced printing and delivery/shipping costs, and expedited transmission of information allowing for more timely decisions. We believe this proposed rule, if adopted, would also mitigate the longstanding problems ( e.g., delays in processing times of test results, cancelling of test results, etc.) associated with illegible and lost copies of paper documents.
V. Advance Notice of Proposed Rulemaking (ANPRM) Overview
On August 5, 2022, we published an ANPRM requesting public comment on how part 40 could be amended, as required by the statute, to allow electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping (87 FR 47951). We requested information from DOT-regulated employers and their service agents regarding if and how they are already handling electronic signatures, records transmission, and records storage in their non-DOT testing programs. In addition, we requested comments and information on appropriate performance standards, and on whether particular methods or performance standards have been successful or unsuccessful. We also asked a number of general questions on the potential advantages, risks, ramifications, and required safeguards associated with the use of electronic signatures, forms, and records in the DOT drug and alcohol testing program. We asked questions about specific sections of part 40 that we anticipated would be affected by prospective changes to implement electronic signatures, forms, and records. Finally, we asked a number of questions regarding the use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol tests.
We received 72 comments in response to the ANPRM, including comments from individuals, testing laboratories, MROs, and MRO organizations, substance abuse professionals (SAP) and SAP organizations, and various associations representing DOT-regulated transportation workers subject to mandatory drug and alcohol testing under part 40.
A few individuals expressed opposition to the adoption of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, citing concerns about the need for the rulemaking, risk to personal information from hackers or mismanaged electronic processes and procedures, and misuse of electronic forms and signatures. To meet our statutory mandate and in consideration of concerns about safeguarding personal information and appropriate use of the information in developing the NPRM, DOT proposes to require security measures for electronic forms and signatures used under part 40 that are the same as those currently in place for the electronic CCF specified in 49 CFR 40.40(c)(5).
Most commenters were supportive of changes to amend part 40 that would permit, but not require, the use of electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping. Commenters supporting revisions to part 40 noted that electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping are used in virtually every industry today—including but not limited to the banking, insurance, medical, and legal industries. Commenters supported the use of performance standards instead of technology-specific standards to ensure that, once established, standards do not become obsolete given the rapidly evolving nature of information technology standards and practices. Commenters stated that allowing electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping would make the drug testing process much more efficient and would result in cost savings. Commenters also stated that it would be safer to store records electronically since records could be backed-up, secured, and protected from tampering and unauthorized access and use.
VI. Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) Rulemaking on Electronic Documents and Signatures
In developing this NPRM, we looked to a rule promulgated by DOT's FMCSA that permits the use of electronic methods to generate, certify, sign, maintain, or exchange records so long as the documents accurately reflect the required information and can be used for their intended purpose. (83 FR 16210, Apr. 16, 2018) The rule applies to documents that FMCSA requires entities or individuals to retain. FMCSA permits, but does not require, anyone to satisfy FMCSA requirements by using electronic methods to generate, maintain, or exchange documents. The substance of the document must otherwise comply with applicable Federal laws and FMCSA rules. FMCSA also permits, but does not require, anyone required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures, defined, as in the GPEA, as a method of signing an electronic communication that: (1) identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication; and (2) indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication. FMCSA allows for the use any available technology for electronic signatures, so long as the signature otherwise complies with FMCSA's requirements.
FMCSA adopted broad performance standards for electronic documents and signatures—as specified in GPEA and E-SIGN—rather than detailed, technology specific standards that would likely become obsolete with inevitable changes in information technology standards and practices. FMCSA's April 2018 rule has been in effect for more than five years, and the definitions and requirements established in that rule have stood the test of time despite the many changes that have occurred with respect to electronic documents and signatures. We are unaware of any FMCSA-regulated entities that have reported issues to FMCSA regarding the use of electronic documents or signatures to meet the requirements of the FMCSRs since the rule became effective in 2018.
VII. Amending Part 40 To Permit Electronic Documents and Signatures
In this NPRM, we propose to permit but not require electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping in part 40. Additionally, we propose a performance standard approach as opposed to establishing technology-specific standards. Where it is possible to do so, establishing the same or substantively similar regulatory requirements for common issues across DOT modal agencies—such as the use of electronic documents and signatures—helps the Department maintain a consistent regulatory approach for those common issues.
There are currently more than 60 references to the term “written” in part 40, and more than 20 additional references to the term “in writing.” We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing” in part 40, to eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic documentation and establish technological neutrality throughout the entirety of part 40.
FMCSA's rule does not apply to documents that individuals or entities are required to file directly with FMCSA. In its April 2018 final rule, FMCSA explained that while industry could use electronic signatures and submit information directly to the FMCSA in certain situations, 6 adapting all FMCSA systems to allow for use of electronic signatures and submissions would significantly delay the implementation of the rule for use by third parties as it would require FMCSA to develop and implement technology systems to allow for direct submission to FMCSA from regulated parties. FMCSA noted that development of such systems could take several years, and therefore saw no reason to make private parties' use of electronic signatures and records retention contingent upon FMCSA's ability to receive submissions electronically because doing so would delay potential benefits to be gained by third parties.
6 As an example, Certified Medical Examiners may use electronic signatures, if they choose to do so, to sign medical forms, certificates, and a new driver medication report. If FMCSA requests these forms, they are uploaded in portable document format (PDF) to the Medical Examiner's account associated with the National Registry of Certified Medical Examiners for FMCSA to access.
In contrast to FMCSA's regulations, part 40 does not require entities or individuals to submit documents directly to the Department except for MIS aggregate drug and alcohol testing data that employers subject to DOT or U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) drug and alcohol testing regulations must submit annually. Each of the various documents required and used as part of the DOT drug and alcohol testing program under part 40 ( e.g., employee drug and alcohol testing records, MRO reports and records, SAP reports and records) are documents that are created by, exchanged between, and maintained by a person or entity involved in the testing process—but are not required to be submitted directly to DOT.
As noted earlier, and specifically with respect to the required MIS data, we standardized the form for employers to report their aggregate drug and alcohol testing data, as well as the specific data collected, more than 20 years ago. At that time, we authorized employers to submit the ONE-DOT MIS form via a web portal. Today, the Federal Aviation Administration, FMCSA, Federal Railroad Administration, and Federal Transit Administration permit employers to submit that same drug and alcohol testing data via the internet, and PHMSA requires that the data be submitted electronically. If employers submit the data electronically via the internet, they are not required to submit a hard copy. DOT recommends that employers have a copy of their data available (either hard copy or in electronic format) in the event an auditor or inspector requests a copy.
From the above, and because the only documents that part 40 requires to be submitted directly to the Department are already permitted to be, and in some cases required to be, submitted electronically, there is no need for us to limit the applicability of our proposal as FMCSA did in its 2018 final rule.
Several commenters noted that they already use electronic signatures and documents for their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing program, and in some cases, have done so for many years. In doing so, these commenters have had to establish appropriate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons, including protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The same general requirements were added to the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved the use of the electronic CCF for use in DOT drug testing in 2015, 7 and we propose the same requirements in this NPRM for the use of electronic signatures, documents, and recordkeeping throughout the entirety of part 40.
7 The 2015 revisions amended then §40.45(c)(5), which was redesignated as §40.40(c)(5) in the May 2023 final rule to include oral fluid testing in the DOT drug testing program (88 FR 27596, May 2, 2023).
Ensuring that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons is an important element of part 40's protections for employees that are subject to DOT's drug and alcohol testing rules. We believe that the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system should constitute the basis for the Department to start a public interest exclusion (PIE) proceeding, and propose to add this to the list of examples provided in §40.365(b).
Throughout part 40, information and documents are required to be transmitted and/or communicated between service agents ( e.g., collectors, screening test technicians (STTs) and breath alcohol technicians (BATs), laboratories, MROs, SAPs, and consortium/third party administrators (C/TPAs)), employers, and employees). Although part 40 does not currently require the party receiving these communications and/or documents to affirmatively confirm receipt of such from the sender, in some instances, regardless of whether the document is electronic or a hard copy, we believe that it may be important for the receiving party to verify that those required communications and/or documents were received.
For example, under §40.25, an employer intending to use an employee to perform safety-sensitive functions must, after obtaining an employee's written consent, request information about the employee's drug and alcohol testing record from previous DOT-regulated employers. After receiving a copy of the employee's written consent, the previous employer must immediately provide the requested information to the employer making the inquiry. If an employer is subsequently investigated/audited by the appropriate DOT mode, it may be beneficial for both the gaining employer and the previous employer to be able to affirmatively demonstrate that the employee's written consent and previous testing record were sent and received as required.
Sections 40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) require a collector or MRO (for drug tests) or a BAT, STT, or a physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation (for alcohol tests), respectively, to—when an employee refuses to participate in a part of the testing process—terminate the testing process, document the refusal, and immediately and directly notify the employer's designated employer representative (DER) by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. Because this notification of a refusal to an employer is of an urgent nature, it may be advisable to require the DER to affirmatively confirm receipt of the required notification from the collector, MRO, BAT, STT, or physician. For example, §§40.191(d) and 40.261(c)(1) could be amended to read “. . . immediately notify the DER by any means and ensure that the refusal notification is immediately received”.
While we are not proposing new requirements in this NPRM regarding confirmation of receipt in the sections discussed above (or in other part 40 requirements), we seek comment regarding whether it may be beneficial or advisable to do so, and if so, for which specific sections of part 40.
VIII. Electronic ATF
The ATF has been in use in the DOT alcohol testing program since 1994 (see 59 FR 7349, Feb. 15, 1994). The ATF must be used to document every DOT alcohol test. DOT regulations at 49 CFR 40.225 set forth the requirements for use of the form, and 49 CFR part 40, appendix G, contains a facsimile (reference copy) of the form. The ATF is a three-part carbonless manifold form used by DOT-regulated employers to document the testing event when testing employees subject to DOT alcohol testing. When the employee is tested, both the employee and the STT and/or the BAT will complete the ATF in various sections. The STT/BAT documents the result(s) by either writing in the screening result or attaching the screening and/or confirmation result printed by the evidential breath testing devices (EBT) onto the ATF, and then sends Copy 1 to the employer, provides Copy 2 to the employee, and retains Copy 3 for their records.
On April 2, 2020, DISA petitioned the Department to amend part 40 to allow for the use of an electronic version of the ATF for DOT mandated alcohol testing. In support of its petition, DISA stated that “The requested amendment to 49 CFR part 40 will enable a parallel process for the documentation of DOT-mandated alcohol tests aligned with the similarly situated amendment previously approved for drug testing.” DISA believes that allowing the use of an electronic ATF will result in several benefits to the industry, including “increased efficiency, security and accuracy in documentation of DOT alcohol tests; paperwork reduction; improved process for conducting a DOT alcohol test in conjunction with a DOT drug test when an electronic version of the federal CCF is used for the drug test; reduction of errors and omissions in the completion of the ATF; and improved efficiency and efficacy in the transmission and record retention of alcohol test results.”
DISA noted that non-DOT workplace breath alcohol testing has been conducted using electronic versions of an alcohol testing form that mirrors the DOT ATF for more than five years. Based on experience using those electronic forms for non-DOT testing, DISA cites improved efficiency and accuracy of documentation because: (1) employer and employee information is entered via computer and thus not dependent on reading and deciphering hand-written entries, (2) date time stamps of the testing are automated and not subject to fluctuation or error, (3) transmission of documentation on completed tests is more secure using databases accessed only via protected password and personal identification number (PIN) to authorized employers or their designated agents, and (4) transmission of test result information is faster and more secure than existing transmission options of scanning and emailing attachments or facsimile.
DISA also noted that permitting use of an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing “will substantially reduce cost, by eliminating the requirement for the printing and distribution of carbonless three-ply paper ATFs. The proposed electronic ATF option would still provide for printed paper images to be made available to the employee, the employer, and the alcohol technician, [but] eliminates the requirement for the more expensive carbonless 3 ply paper ATF.”
For the reasons described by DISA in its petition, and recognizing that significant benefits and cost reductions have resulted from use of the electronic CCF for drug testing, we believe that it is likewise appropriate to permit the use of electronic ATFs in part 40 for DOT-regulated testing. Permitting but not requiring the use of an electronic ATF would be consistent with our proposal to permit, but not require, the use of electronic documents and signatures throughout the entirety of part 40 as discussed above. As several commenters noted, the use of an electronic ATF has been used in non-DOT testing for 5-10 years, and the same developers of the electronic CCFs have developed the electronic ATFs. Any electronic ATF used under part 40 for DOT-regulated employees would have to be identical in form and content to the DOT ATF in appendix I to part 40. 8 Just as we imposed general confidentiality and security requirements when electronic CCFs were permitted to be used under part 40, we believe that it is necessary to include the same general requirements relating to the use of electronic ATFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
8 The ATF form was redesignated from appendix G to appendix I as part of the rulemaking process culminating in the May 2023 final rule. During that process, the form was reviewed by the public and DOT received no comment on the form.
Manufacturers of EBTs and alcohol screening devices (ASD) used in DOT alcohol tests must obtain approval from the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) and then be listed on the Office of Drug and Alcohol Policy and Compliance's (ODAPC) website before those devices may be used in DOT alcohol testing.
IX. PHMSA Proposed Changes
PHMSA is proposing to amend §§199.3, 199.117, and 199.227 and to add §199.4 to conform to the proposed changes in part 40 and to clarify that the proposed changes in part 40 apply to part 199. These changes will help the readers of part 199 find the applicable regulations in part 40 with regards to the definition of terms and record keeping requirements. We also propose to amend §§199.119 and 199.229 by changing the reference of “appendix H” to “appendix J” to conform to the amendment of part 40 published on May 2, 2023.
X. Section-by-Section Analysis
Section 40.3 What do the terms used in this regulation mean?
We propose to add a definition of “electronic signature.” The rule would define an electronic signature as a method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note, 112 Stat. 2681-749). Including the specific cross reference to GPEA would ensure that regulated entities know that we are using GPEA's performance standard for allowing use of electronic signatures.
We propose to add a definition of “written or in writing.” The rule would define written or in writing as printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of 49 CFR 40.4. This definition would eliminate any distinction between paper and electronic methods of communication/documentation.
Section 40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
We propose to add a new §40.4 that would prescribe the requirements pertaining to electronic documents and signatures throughout part 40.
Paragraph (a) would specify that §40.4 would apply to all documents required by part 40, except for the CCF, as an electronic CCF may only be used when approved by HHS and in compliance with §40.40(c)(5). As background, before an HHS-certified laboratory can use a Federal electronic CCF for regulated specimens, the test facility must submit a detailed plan and proposed standard operating procedures for the electronic CCF system for HHS review and approval through the National Laboratory Certification Program. At the current time, several HHS-certified laboratories have received approval to use a combination electronic/paper CCF, while four laboratories have received approval to use a fully electronic CCF. As noted earlier, and in a separate section of the SUPPORT Act, HHS was required to set a deadline for certified laboratories to request approval for use of fully electronic CCFs. That deadline is now August 31, 2026.
Paragraph (b) would permit, but not require, any person or entity to use electronic methods to comply with any provision in part 40 that requires a document to be signed, certified, generated, maintained, or transmitted between parties. It would apply to all forms of written documentation, including forms, records, notations, and other documents. The substance of the document would otherwise have to comply with part 40 requirements. This would establish parity between paper and electronic documents and signatures, greatly expanding interested parties' ability to use electronic methods to comply with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (c) would permit, but not require, any entity required to sign or certify a document to do so using electronic signatures as defined in §40.3. The rule specifies that a person may use any available technology so long as the signature otherwise complies with the requirements of part 40.
Paragraph (d) would establish the minimum requirements for electronic documents and signatures. Any electronic document or signature would be considered the legal equivalent of a paper document or signature if it is the functional equivalent with respect to integrity, accuracy, and accessibility. In other words, the electronic documents or signatures need to accurately and reliably reflect the information in the record. They must remain accessible in a form that could be accurately viewed or reproduced according to Agency rules. As with any documents, paper or electronic, documents that are not legible—for any reason—do not satisfy the Department's requirements.
Electronic documents are not to be considered the legal equivalent of traditional paper documents if they (1) are not capable of being retained, (2) are not used for the purpose for which they were created, or (3) cannot be accurately reproduced for reference by any entity entitled to access by law, for the period of time required by the Department's recordkeeping requirements.
Paragraph (d) would also require that any electronically signed documents must incorporate or otherwise include evidence that both parties to the document have consented to the use of electronic signatures, as required by the E-SIGN Act (15 U.S.C. 7001(c)).
Paragraph (e) would require that when using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form. The proposed requirements are analogous to those established in the current §40.40(c)(5) when we approved use of the electronic CCF in part 40.
Section 40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
Currently, paragraph (g) makes it clear that the release of information under this section must be in any written form, and the parenthetical clarifies that this can be paper-based (written, fax) or electronic (email). Under the proposed definition of “written or in writing,” there is no distinction between paper-based and electronic communications. Because “written or in writing” would mean either paper or electronic communications, we propose to remove parenthetical reference to “fax, email, letter” to eliminate redundancy and confusion. All parties can conduct their business using either paper or electronic means of documentation and communication.
Section 40.79 How is the collection process completed?
Currently, paragraph (a)(9) of this section requires the collector to “fax or otherwise transmit” Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. We propose to amend this section by removing reference to the methods of transmitting receipts, so parties can choose their own medium of communication.
Section 40.97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.111 When and how must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to amend paragraph (b) of this section to remove the references to the methods of transmitting the summary or report required by this section. Because the summary or report can be transmitted via hard copy or electronically, there is no need to specify how it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (c)(2) of this section.
Section 40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “fax, photocopy, image” for Copy 1 of the CCF in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to remove the reference to a “letter” in paragraph (c) of this section. In paragraph (e) of this section, we propose to replace the term “letter” with “written report” for consistency with paragraph (c).
Section 40.167 How are MRO reports of drug results transmitted to the employer?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
Section 40.185 Through what methods and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “fax, courier, mail, or electronically” in paragraph (b) of this section. In addition, because Copy 1 of the CCF can be transmitted in writing or electronically, there is no need to specify the methods through which it must be transmitted. As such, we propose to amend the title of this section accordingly.
Section 40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.79, we propose to remove the references to the methods of transmitting Copy 1 of the CCF from the laboratory to the MRO in paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) of this section.
Section 40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (d) of this section as means of transmitting notification that an employee has refused to participate in part of the testing process from the collector or MRO to the DER.
Section 40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of urine for a drug test?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “send or fax” as the means for the collector to transmit copies of the CCF to the MRO and the DER in paragraph (b)(3) of this section.
Section 40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a collector, laboratory, MRO, employer, or other person to supply signed statements regarding correctable problems in a drug test in paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) of this section.
Section 40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
We propose to amend this section to permit, but not require, the use of an electronic version of the DOT ATF that is identical in form and content to the form provided in appendix I to part 40. The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT, and if an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results pursuant to §40.253(g), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout. This section would also be amended to specify the same general confidentiality and security measures in §40.45 relating to electronic CCFs to ensure that confidential employee records cannot be accessed by unauthorized persons.
Section 40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (a)(5)(i) of this section as means of transmitting results of the alcohol confirmation test from the BAT to the DER. Similarly, there is no need to specify that Copy 1 of the ATF may be transmitted “in person, by telephone, or by electronic means.”
Section 40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the parenthetical references to “telephone or secure fax machine” in paragraph (c) of this section as means of transmitting a refusal notification from a BAT, STT, or referral physician to the DER.
Section 40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
For the same reasons explained in the discussion of §40.25, we propose to delete the references to “by fax or courier” as the means for a STT, BAT, employer, or other service agent to supply a signed statement regarding correctable flaws in an alcohol test in paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
Section 40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
We propose to amend this section by adding a new paragraph (b)(15) that would identify the failure of a service agent to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system as appropriate grounds for starting a PIE proceeding.
X. Regulatory Analyses and Notices
Executive Orders 12866, 13563, and 14094 (Regulatory Planning and Review)
The Secretary has examined the impact of the proposed part 40 amendments under Executive Order 12866 (“Regulatory Planning and Review”), as supplemented by Executive Order 13563 (“Improving Regulation and Regulatory Review”) and amended by Executive Order 14094 (“Modernizing Regulatory Review”), which directs Federal agencies to assess all costs and benefits of available regulatory alternatives and, when regulation is necessary, to select regulatory approaches that maximize net benefits (including potential economic, environmental, public health and safety, and other advantages; distributive impacts; and equity).
According to these Executive orders, a regulatory action is “significant” if it meets any one of a number of specified conditions, including having an annual effect on the economy of $200 million or more, as adjusted every three years by the Office of Information and Regulatory Affairs (OIRA); adversely affecting in a material way a sector of the economy, competition, or jobs; or if it raises novel legal or policy issues. The proposed amendments, which would allow the use of electronic documents and signatures, do not meet the Executive order's criteria for being a significant rule. Consequently, OMB has determined that the rulemaking action is not significant under the Executive order.
The proposed rule responds to the statutory mandate set forth in Section 8108 of the Fighting Opioid Abuse in Transportation Act, part of the SUPPORT for Patients and Communities Act, Public Law 115-271. The proposed rule would not impose new requirements on the industry; rather, it would simply permit—but not require—regulated entities to use electronic signatures, forms, and recordkeeping, and remove outdated and obsolete references in the regulatory text. The proposed rule would not impose new costs on the industry because regulated entities would be allowed to choose to continue to use paper-based documents as they had before. The benefits of the rule would stem from savings in paper and printing expense and other efficiency gains. Examples of documents affected by this rule include, but are not limited to, records of a prospective employee's drug and alcohol testing history that employers must obtain prior to permitting that employee to perform safety-sensitive duties, MRO records and reports, SAP records and reports, and ATFs. While there is no way to estimate how many entities or individuals would change their practices given the new options, or how many documents would be affected, several commenters to the ANPRM stated that they have been using electronic documents and signatures in their non-DOT drug and alcohol testing programs for many years. While neither the benefits nor the costs of this rule can be reliably estimated, we expect this proposed rule to provide flexibility to the industry. Under this proposed rule, regulated entities would have the flexibility to conduct business using either electronic or traditional paper-based methods. We also expect regulated entities to choose technologies that would maximize benefits in accordance with their individual needs and circumstances.
Regulatory Flexibility Act and Small Business Regulatory Enforcement Fairness Act (SBREFA)
The Regulatory Flexibility Act of 1980 (5 U.S.C. 601 et seq. ) requires Federal agencies to consider the effects of their regulatory actions on small businesses and other small entities and minimize any significant economic impact. The term “small entities” comprises small businesses and not-for-profit organizations that are independently owned and operated and are not dominant in their fields, and governmental jurisdictions with a population of less than 50,000. For this rulemaking, potentially affected small entities include drug testing companies (U.S. Small Business Administration (SBA) North American Industry Classification System (NAICS) Sector 54 (Professional, Scientific and Technical Services), Code 541380 (Testing Laboratories and Services)) as well as DOT-regulated entities (SBA NAICS Sectors 48-49 (Transportation and Warehousing)).
The Department does not expect that the proposed rule would have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities. The proposed rule, if adopted, would increase flexibility for all small-entity transportation employers and their service agents by allowing them to use electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping to meet part 40 requirements. Use of electronic documents, electronic signatures, and electronic recordkeeping would be voluntary for affected small entities, which will provide added flexibility to these entities in meeting the part 40 requirements. For these reasons, and as explained in more detail in the preamble to this proposed rule, the Secretary certifies that the proposed rule would not have a significant economic impact on a substantial number of small entities within the meaning of the Regulatory Flexibility Act. Consequently, an initial regulatory flexibility analysis is not required for this proposed rule.
Unfunded Mandates
The Secretary has examined the impact of the final rule under the Unfunded Mandates Reform Act (UMRA) of 1995 (Pub. L. 104-4). This NPRM does not trigger the requirement for a written statement under sec. 202(a) of the UMRA because this rulemaking does not impose a mandate that results in an expenditure of $100 million (adjusted annually for inflation) or more by either State, local, and tribal governments in the aggregate or by the private sector in any one year. In fact, by providing an alternative to traditional paper-based records, the proposed rule would be expected to reduce costs to regulated parties, including State and local entities ( e.g., public transit authorities, and public works departments) whose employees are subject to testing and that choose to use electronic documents as opposed to paper-based documents.
Environmental Impact
The DOT has analyzed the environmental impacts of this action pursuant to the National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 (NEPA) (42 U.S.C. 4321 et seq. ) and has determined that it is categorically excluded pursuant to DOT Order 5610.1C, “Procedures for Considering Environmental Impacts” (44 FR 56420, October 1, 1979). Categorical exclusions are actions identified in an agency's NEPA implementing procedures that do not normally have a significant impact on the environment and therefore do not require either an environmental assessment (EA) or environmental impact statement (EIS). This proposed rule would amend the transportation industry drug testing program procedures regulation to permit the use of electronic documents, signatures, and recordkeeping. This action is covered by the categorical exclusion listed at 23 CFR 771.118(c)(4), “[p]lanning and administrative activities that do not involve or lead directly to construction, such as: . . . promulgation of rules, regulations, directives . . .” The Department does not anticipate any environmental impacts, and there are no extraordinary circumstances present in connection with this rulemaking.
Executive Order 13132: Federalism
The Secretary has analyzed the final rule in accordance with Executive Order 13132: Federalism. Executive Order 13132 requires Federal agencies to carefully examine actions to determine if they contain policies that have federalism implications or that preempt State law. As defined in the order, “policies that have federalism implications” refer to regulations, legislative comments or proposed legislation, and other policy statements or actions that have substantial direct effects on the States, on the relationship between the National Government and the States, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities among the various levels of government.
Most of the regulated parties under the Department's drug testing program are private entities. Some regulated entities are public entities ( e.g., transit authorities and public works departments); however, as noted above, this proposal would reduce costs of the Department's drug testing program and provide additional flexibility for regulated parties. Accordingly, the Secretary has determined that the proposed rule, which would allow but not require use of electronic signatures and recordkeeping, does not contain policies that have federalism implications.
Executive Order 13175: Consultation and Coordination With Indian Tribal Governments
Executive Order 13175 (65 FR 67249, November 6, 2000) requires Federal agencies to develop an accountable process to ensure “meaningful and timely input by tribal officials in the development of regulatory policies that have tribal implications.” “Policies that have tribal implications” as defined in the Executive order, include regulations that have “substantial direct effects on one or more Indian tribes, on the relationship between the Federal government and the Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal government and Indian tribes.” This proposed rule does not have tribal implications. The proposed rule will also not have substantial direct effects on tribal governments, on the relationship between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, or on the distribution of power and responsibilities between the Federal Government and Indian tribes, as specified in Executive Order 13175.
Paperwork Reduction Act
The Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501-3520) (PRA) requires that DOT consider the impact of paperwork and other information collection burdens imposed on the public. This proposed rule would call for no new collection of information under the PRA. Instead, there would likely be a significant reduction in the burden hours required for information collection 2105-0529, Procedures for Transportation Drug and Alcohol Testing Program, due to the ability to use electronic signatures and forms, and largely due to the ability to use an electronic ATF for DOT-regulated alcohol testing under part 40. We request comments on this issue. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, no person shall be subject to any penalty for failing to comply with a collection of information subject to the PRA that does not display a currently valid OMB control number.
Privacy Act
Anyone is able to search the electronic form of all comments received in any of our dockets by the name of the individual submitting the comment (or signing the comment, if submitted on behalf of an association, business, labor union, etc.) For information on DOT's compliance with the Privacy Act, please visit https://www.transportation.gov/privacy.
5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4)
As required by 5 U.S.C. 553(b)(4), a summary of this proposed rule can be found at the entry for RIN 2105-AF01 in the Department's Portion of the Unified Agenda of Regulatory and Deregulatory Affairs, available at https://www.reginfo.gov/public/do/eAgendaViewRule?pubId=202404&RIN=2105-AF01 .
Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023
In accordance with Compliance with Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 (Fiscal Responsibility Act of 2023, Pub. L. 118-5, div. B, title III) and OMB Memorandum (M-23-21) dated September 1, 2023, the Department has determined that this proposed rule is not subject to the Pay-As-You-Go Act of 2023 because it will not increase direct spending beyond specified thresholds.
List of Subjects
49 CFR Part 40
Administrative practice and procedures, Alcohol abuse, Alcohol testing, Drug abuse, Drug testing, Laboratories, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
49 CFR Part 199
Alcohol testing, Drug testing, Pipeline safety, Reporting and recordkeeping requirements, Safety, Transportation.
For the reasons stated in the preamble, the Department proposes to amend 49 CFR parts 40 and 199 as follows:
PART 40—PROCEDURES FOR TRANSPORTATION WORKPLACE DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING PROGRAMS
1. The authority for part 40 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 102, 301, 322, 5331, 20140, 31306, and 54101 et seq.
2. In §40.3, add the definitions of “Electronic signature” and “Written or in writing” in alphabetical order to read as follows:
§40.3 What do the terms used in this part mean?
* * * * *
Electronic signature. A method of signing an electronic communication that identifies and authenticates a particular person as the source of the electronic communication and indicates such person's approval of the information contained in the electronic communication, in accordance with the Government Paperwork Elimination Act (Pub. L. 105-277, title XVII, secs. 1701-1710, 112 Stat. 2681-749, 44 U.S.C. 3504 note).
* * * * *
Written or in writing. Printed, handwritten, or typewritten either on paper or other tangible medium, or by any method of electronic documentation that meets the requirements of §40.4.
3. Add §40.4 to read as follows:
§40.4 May electronic documents and signatures be used?
(a) Applicability. This section applies to all documents required by this part, except for the CCF. An electronic CCF may be used only if it has been approved for use by the Department of Health and Human Services and is used in compliance with §40.40(c)(5).
(b) Electronic records or documents. Any person or entity required to generate, maintain, or exchange and/or transmit documents to satisfy requirements in this part may use electronic methods to satisfy those requirements.
(c) Electronic signatures. (1) Any person or entity required to sign or certify a document to satisfy the requirements of this part may use an electronic signature, as defined in §40.3.
(2) Any available technology may be used that satisfies the requirements of an electronic signature as defined in §40.3.
(d) Electronic document requirements. Any person or entity may use documents signed, certified, generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods, as long as the documents accurately reflect the information otherwise required to be contained in them.
(1) Records, documents, or signatures generated, maintained, or exchanged using electronic methods satisfy the requirements of this section if they are capable of being retained, are used for the purpose for which they were created, and can be accurately reproduced within required timeframes for reference by any party entitled to access.
(2) Records or documents generated electronically satisfy the requirements of this section if they include proof of consent to use electronically generated records or documents, as required by 15 U.S.C. 7001(c).
(e) Confidentiality and security. When using electronic documents and signatures, adequate confidentiality and security measures must be established to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form to include protecting against destruction, deterioration, and data corruption.
4. In §40.25, revise paragraph (g) to read as follows:
§40.25 Must an employer check on the drug and alcohol testing record of employees it is intending to use to perform safety-sensitive duties?
* * * * *
(g) The release of information under this section must be in any written form that ensures confidentiality. As the previous employer, you must maintain a written record of the information released, including the date, the party to whom it was released, and a summary of the information provided.
* * * * *
5. In §40.79, revise paragraph (a)(9) to read as follows:
§40.79 How is the collection process completed?
(a) * * *
(9) Send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or during the next business day. Keep Copy 3 for at least 30 days, unless otherwise specified by applicable DOT agency regulations.
* * * * *
6. In §40.97, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text, (c)(1) introductory text, and (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40. 97 What do laboratories report and how do they report it?
* * * * *
(c) As a laboratory, you must report laboratory results directly, and only, to the MRO at his or her place of business. You must not report results to or through the DER or a service agent ( e.g., C/TPA).
(1) Negative results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF which has been signed by the certifying scientist, or you may provide the laboratory results report electronically.
* * * * *
(2) Non-negative and rejected for testing results. You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF that has been signed by the certifying scientist. In addition, you may provide the laboratory results report following the format and procedures set forth in paragraphs (c)(1)(i) and (ii) of this section.
* * * * *
7. In §40.111, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.111 When must a laboratory disclose statistical summaries and other information it maintains?
* * * * *
(b) When the employer requests a summary in response to an inspection, audit, or review by a DOT agency, you must provide it unless the employer had fewer than five aggregate test results. In that case, you must send the employer a report indicating that not enough testing was conducted to warrant a summary.
* * * * *
8. In §40.127, revise paragraph (c)(2) to read as follows:
§40.127 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing negative test results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF or the electronic laboratory results report that conveys the negative laboratory test result.
* * * * *
9. In §40.129, revise paragraphs (b) introductory text and (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.129 What are the MRO's functions in reviewing laboratory confirmed non-negative drug test results?
* * * * *
(b) Before you report a verified negative, positive, test cancelled, refusal to test because of adulteration or substitution, you must have in your possession the following documents:
* * * * *
(2) A legible copy of Copy 1 of the CCF, containing the certifying scientist's signature.
* * * * *
10. In §40.163, revise paragraphs (c) introductory text and (e) to read as follows:
§40.163 How does the MRO report drug test results?
* * * * *
(c) If you do not report test results using Copy 2 of the CCF for the purposes of this section, you must provide a written report for each test result. This report must, as a minimum, include the following information:
* * * * *
(e) You must retain a signed or stamped and dated copy of Copy 2 of the CCF in your records. If you do not use Copy 2 for reporting results, you must maintain a copy of the signed or stamped and dated written report in addition to the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2. If you use the electronic data file to report negatives, you must maintain a retrievable copy of that report in a format suitable for inspection and auditing by a DOT representative.
* * * * *
11. In §40.167, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.167 How are MRO reports of drug test results transmitted to the employer?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(1) You must transmit a legible image or copy of either the signed or stamped and dated Copy 2 or the written report (see §40.163(b) and (c)).
* * * * *
12. In §40.185, revise the section heading and paragraph (b) to read as follows:
§40.185 What and to whom must a laboratory report split specimen results?
* * * * *
(b) You must transmit a legible image or copy of the fully-completed Copy 1 of the CCF, which has been signed by the certifying scientist.
* * * * *
13. In §40.187, revise paragraph (c)(2)(iv)(C) to read as follows:
§40.187 What does the MRO do with split specimen laboratory results?
* * * * *
(c) * * *
(2) * * *
(iv) * * *
(C) As the laboratory that tests the primary specimen to reconfirm the presence of the adulterant found in the split specimen and/or to determine that the primary specimen meets appropriate substitution criteria, report your result to the MRO using a copy of Copy 1 of the CCF.
* * * * *
14. In §40.191, revise paragraph (d) introductory text to read as follows:
§40.191 What is a refusal to take a DOT drug test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(d) As a collector or an MRO, when an employee refuses to participate in the part of the testing process in which you are involved, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the CCF (including, in the case of the collector, printing the employee's name on Copy 2 of the CCF), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures that the refusal notification is immediately received. As a referral physician ( e.g., physician evaluating a “shy bladder” condition or a claim of a legitimate medical explanation in a validity testing situation), you must notify the MRO, who in turn will notify the DER.
* * * * *
15. In §40.193, revise paragraph (b)(3) to read as follows:
§40.193 What happens when an employee does not provide a sufficient amount of specimen for a drug test?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(3) As the collector, you must send Copy 2 of the CCF to the MRO and Copy 4 to the DER. You must transmit these copies to the MRO and DER within 24 hours or the next business day.
* * * * *
16. In §40.205, revise paragraphs (b)(1) and (2) to read as follows:
§40.205 How are drug test problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(1) If the problem resulted from the omission of required information, you must, as the person responsible for providing that information, supply in writing the missing information and a statement that it is true and accurate. For example, suppose you are a collector, and you forgot to make a notation on the “Remarks” line of the CCF that the employee did not sign the certification. You would, when the problem is called to your attention, supply a signed statement that the employee failed or refused to sign the certification and that your statement is true and accurate. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-Federal form or an expired Federal form, you must provide a signed statement ( i.e., a memorandum for the record). It must state that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT drug test, and that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control. The statement must also list the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-Federal forms or expired Federal forms for DOT tests. For this flaw to be corrected, the test of the specimen must have occurred at an HHS-certified laboratory where it was tested consistent with the requirements of this part. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
17. In §40.225, revise paragraph (a) and add paragraphs (d) and (e) to read as follows:
§40.225 What form is used for an alcohol test?
(a) The DOT Alcohol Testing Form (ATF) must be used for every DOT alcohol test. The ATF must be a three-part carbonless manifold form or an electronic ATF that meets the requirements of paragraph (d) of this section. The ATF is found in appendix G to this part. You may view this form on the ODAPC website ( https://www.transportation.gov/odapc ).
* * * * *
(d) As an employer, you may use an electronic ATF that meets the following requirements:
(1) The electronic ATF must be identical in form and content to the ATF found in appendix G to this part.
(2) The electronic ATF must meet the requirements of §40.4(d).
(3) The electronic ATF must be capable of capturing the electronic signatures of the employee and the BAT and/or STT.
(4) If an EBT provides a separate printout of confirmation test results (see §40.253(g)), the electronic ATF must include that separate printout.
(e) As an employer, BAT, or STT using an electronic ATF, you must establish adequate confidentiality and security measures to ensure that confidential employee records are not available to unauthorized persons. This includes protecting the physical security of records, access controls, and computer security measures to safeguard confidential data in electronic form.
18. In §40.255, revise paragraph (a)(5)(i) to read as follows:
§40.255 What happens next after the alcohol confirmation test result?
(a) * * *
(5) * * *
(i) You may transmit the results using Copy 1 of the ATF, in person, by telephone, or by electronic means. In any case, you must immediately notify the DER of any result of 0.02 or greater by any means that ensures the result is immediately received by the DER. You must not transmit these results through C/TPAs or other service agents.
* * * * *
19. In §40.261, revise paragraph (c)(1) to read as follows:
§40.261 What is a refusal to take an alcohol test, and what are the consequences?
* * * * *
(c)(1) As a BAT or an STT, or as the physician evaluating a “shy lung” situation, when an employee refuses to test as provided in paragraph (a) of this section, you must terminate the portion of the testing process in which you are involved, document the refusal on the ATF (or in a separate document which you cause to be attached to the form), immediately notify the DER by any means that ensures the refusal notification is immediately received. You must make this notification directly to the DER (not using a C/TPA as an intermediary).
* * * * *
20. In §40.271, revise paragraph (b)(2) to read as follows:
§40.271 How are alcohol testing problems corrected?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(2) If the problem is the use of a non-DOT form, you must, as the person responsible for the use of the incorrect form, certify in writing that the incorrect form contains all the information needed for a valid DOT alcohol test. You must also provide a signed statement that the incorrect form was used inadvertently or as the only means of conducting a test, in circumstances beyond your control, and the steps you have taken to prevent future use of non-DOT forms for DOT tests. You must supply this information on the same business day on which you are notified of the problem.
* * * * *
21. In §40.365, revise paragraphs (b)(13) and (14) and add paragraph (b)(15) to read as follows:
§40.365 What is the Department's policy concerning starting a PIE proceeding?
* * * * *
(b) * * *
(13) For any service agent, directing or recommending that an employer fail or refuse to implement any provision of this part;
(14) With respect to noncompliance with a DOT agency regulation, conduct that affects important provisions of Department-wide concern ( e.g., failure to properly conduct the selection process for random testing); or
(15) For a service agent, failing to provide or maintain a secure/confidential electronic system. PART 199—DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING
22. The authority citation for part 199 continues to read as follows:
Authority:
49 U.S.C. 5103, 60102, 60104, 60108, 60117, and 60118; 49 CFR 1.53.
23. In §199.3:
a. Designate the introductory text as paragraph (b); and
b. Add paragraph (a).
The addition reads as follows:
§199.3 Definitions.
(a) Terms used in this part have the same meaning as in 49 CFR 40.3.
* * * * *
24. Add §199.4 to read as follows:
§199.4 Electronic documents, records, and signatures.
Electronic documents, records, and signatures may be used to comply with this part provided they meet the requirements specified in 49 CFR part 40.
25. In §199.117, revise paragraph (a) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.117 Recordkeeping.
(a) Each operator shall keep the records in paragraphs (a)(1) through (5) of this section for the periods specified by this section or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater; and will permit access to the records as provided by §190.203.
* * * * *
26. In §199.119, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.119 Reporting of anti-drug testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual Management Information System (MIS) report to PHMSA of its anti-drug testing using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
27. In §199.227, revise paragraph (b) introductory text to read as follows:
§199.227 Retention of records.
* * * * *
(b) Period of retention. Each operator shall maintain the records in accordance with the following schedule or for the periods specified by 49 CFR part 40, whichever is greater:
* * * * *
28. In §199.229, revise paragraph (a) to read as follows:
§199.229 Reporting of alcohol testing results.
(a) Each large operator (having more than 50 covered employees) must submit an annual MIS report to PHMSA of its alcohol testing results using the MIS form and instructions as required by 49 CFR part 40 (at §40.26 and appendix J to part 40), not later than March 15 of each year for the prior calendar year (January 1 through December 31). The Administrator may require by notice in the PHMSA Portal ( https://portal.phmsa.dot.gov/phmsaportallanding ) that small operators (50 or fewer covered employees), not otherwise required to submit annual MIS reports, to prepare and submit such reports to PHMSA.
* * * * *
Signed on: Thursday, October 3, 2024.
Pete Buttigieg,
Secretary of Transportation.
[FR Doc. 2024-23427 Filed 10-11-24; 8:45 am]
BILLING CODE 4910-9X-P
See More
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Most Recent Highlights In Environmental
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EHS Monthly Round Up - August 2025
In this August 2025 roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what’s happened over the past month!
OSHA extended the comment period for multiple proposed rules it published on July 1. Stakeholders now have an extra 60 days, until November 1, to comment. Impacted rules include those for respiratory protection, construction illumination, COVID-19, and the General Duty Clause.
OSHA is expanding its Voluntary Protection Programs to help employers develop strong safety programs and lower injury rates. To participate, employers must submit an application to OSHA and undergo an onsite evaluation by a team of safety and health professionals.
Following a series of recent trench collapses, OSHA urges employers to take steps to protect workers. Trench collapses can be prevented by sloping or benching trench walls at an angle, shoring trench walls with supports, and shielding walls with trench boxes. More information can be found on OSHA’s website.
The Mine Safety and Health Administration launched a webpage for its new Compliance Assistance in Safety and Health, or CASH, program. The agency anticipates a surge in domestic mining productivity and seeks to proactively provide miners and mine operators with compliance assistance materials.
Turning to environmental news, EPA proposes challenges to California’s Clean Truck Check program. The program aims to reduce emissions of nitrogen oxides and particulate matter for heavy-duty vehicles. EPA supports the regulation as it applies to California-registered vehicles but disapproves the regulation as it applies to out of state and out of country vehicles. Stakeholders have until September 25 to comment on the proposal.
On August 14, EPA released the July 2025 nonconfidential TSCA Inventory of chemical substances manufactured, processed, or imported in the U.S. The Inventory contains over 86 thousand chemicals, nearly half of which are in active use. The next inventory update is planned for late 2026.
And finally, EPA proposes to rescind the 2009 Endangerment Finding and repeal greenhouse gas emissions for new motor vehicles and vehicle engines. The agency will accept comments on the proposal through September 15.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
NewsHazardous WasteGreenhouse GasesWaste ManifestsWater ProgramsFall ProtectionMonthly Roundup VideoFall Protection for ConstructionCAA ComplianceUSAWater ProgramsWaste/HazWasteEnglishIndustry NewsSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyWasteEnvironmentalFocus AreaAir ProgramsVideo
EHS Monthly Round Up - September 2025
In this September 2025 roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what’s happened over the past month.
OSHA released its Spring 2025 regulatory agenda on September 4. Many rulemakings have been pushed into the fourth quarter of 2025 and the first half of 2026, while a few have been removed from the agenda altogether. These include Infectious Diseases, Blood Lead Level for Medical Removal, and the Musculoskeletal Disorders Column on the OSHA 300 log.
Three rules moved into the long-term actions category – Workplace Violence in Health Care and Social Assistance, Cranes and Derricks in Construction, and Process Safety Management and Prevention of Major Chemical Accidents. The proposed rule stage saw an influx of new entries, most of which were published in the July 1 Federal Register.
The Standards Improvement Project, slated for proposal in May 2026, intends to “remove, modernize, or narrow duplicative, unnecessary, or overly burdensome regulatory provisions.”
OSHA renewed its alliance with the National Waste and Recycling Association and the Solid Waste Association of North America. The partnership will focus on safety issues such as transportation hazards; slips, trips, and falls; needlestick and musculoskeletal injuries; and health issues associated with lithium battery hazards in waste/recycling collection and processing.
For the 15th year in a row, fall protection for construction topped OSHA’s list of top 10 violations. In fiscal year 2024, there were 5,914 recorded fall protection violations, down from 7,271 in fiscal year 2023. The standards that round out the top 10 remain unchanged, with a shift in some of the rankings.
Turning to environmental news, EPA proposes to eliminate the Greenhouse Gas Reporting Program requirements for all source categories except the petroleum and natural gas systems category. The agency also proposes to suspend compliance obligations for covered facilities until 2034. A public hearing was held October 1 and stakeholders have until November 3 to comment on the proposal.
Hazardous waste handlers may continue to use 5-paper copy manifest forms. EPA announced it will accept these forms from entities regulated by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act, or RCRA, until further notice. The agency will give a 90-day notice before it plans to stop accepting the 5-copy forms.
And finally, EPA published its Spring 2025 regulatory agenda on September 4. The agenda outlines the agency’s upcoming regulatory actions and their status in the rulemaking process. Major updates on the docket include those for greenhouse gases, risk management rules, and the Renewable Fuel Standards for 2026 and 2027.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
NewsHazardous WasteEnforcement and Audits - OSHAToxic Substances Control Act - EPAToxic Subtances Control Act - EPAElectronic Reporting of Injury and Illness RecordsTSCA ComplianceMonthly Roundup VideoCAA ComplianceUSAInjury and Illness RecordkeepingWaste/HazWasteEnglishOSHA Violations and PenaltiesIndustry NewsCrystalline SilicaWaste HandlersSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyWasteWaste TransportersEnvironmentalFocus AreaToxic and Hazardous Substances - OSHAVideo
EHS Monthly Round Up - January 2025
In this January 2025 monthly roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. There’s a lot going on, so let’s get started!
As happens at the start of most incoming presidential administrations, a freeze has been placed on all regulatory activity at the federal level, giving the new administration time to review agencies’ plans. The Office of Management and Budget, which must approve most rulemaking activities, has sent numerous pending rules back to the agencies for review. In addition, OSHA withdrew its infectious diseases proposed rule and its COVID-19 in healthcare rule prior to the inauguration.
OSHA’s penalties increased on January 15. The maximum penalty amounts for serious and other-than-serious violations increased to $16,550. For willful or repeated violations, the maximum penalty increased to $165,514 per violation.
OSHA updated its directive on injury and illness recordkeeping policies and procedures. While it’s intended for OSHA compliance officers, employers can use the information to help with recordkeeping compliance.
Fewer workers died on the job in 2023, as fatal work injuries decreased 3.7 percent from 2022. Transportation incidents remained the most frequent type of fatal event, accounting for over 36 percent of all occupational fatalities.
California’s Occupational Safety and Health Standards Board voted to adopt a permanent silica standard. If approved, it would extend and strengthen the state’s emergency temporary standard, which was put in place in December 2023.
The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health updated its List of Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings. This is a resource for employers and employees in identifying drugs that are hazardous to the health and safety of those who handle them.
Turning to environmental news, EPA released the biannual update of the nonconfidential TSCA inventory. The inventory helps facilities determine their regulatory requirements for the chemicals they use or plan to use.
And finally, EPA added new Management Method Codes to describe how hazardous waste will be managed after temporary storage and transfer. As of January 1st, hazardous waste handlers must use the codes on the Biennial Report Waste Generation and Management forms.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
NewsProcess Safety ManagementEnforcement and Audits - OSHAToxic Substances Control Act - EPAWasteErgonomicsMonthly Roundup VideoUSAWaste/HazWasteEnglishErgonomicsIndustry NewsEnforcement and Audits - OSHASafety & HealthToxic Substances - EPAGeneral Industry SafetyWasteEnvironmentalHazardous Materials Safety - OSHAFocus AreaVideo
EHS Monthly Round-Up - August 2024
In this August 2024 roundup, we'll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental, health, and safety news. Please view the content links in the transcript for more information about the topics I’ll be covering today. Let’s get started!
Two State Plan agencies allegedly provided advance notice of workplace inspections to employers, a practice that’s prohibited under the Occupational Safety and Health Act. Now, lawmakers have requested that the Department of Labor’s acting secretary address the allegations and explain what challenges OSHA faces when monitoring and enforcing State Plan compliance.
A recent study shows jobs in agriculture, forestry, fishing, and hunting are among California’s most dangerous, accounting for the highest number of fatalities among full-time workers. Transportation and utilities jobs ranked second and construction was third.
Remote isolation of process equipment can quickly stop the release of hazardous materials, which can help prevent fatalities and injuries, limit facility damage, and better protect communities and the environment. A U.S. Chemical Safety Board study explores their use and makes recommendations for their utilization in chemical facilities.
A National Safety Council report explores the role of diversity, equity, and inclusion on work-related musculoskeletal disorders, or MSDs. MSDs are the most common workplace injury and often lead to worker disability, early retirement, and employment limitations.
And finally, turning to environmental news, EPA published a final rule that revises its hazardous waste export manifest regulations. All hazardous waste shipments and manifest-related reports will be managed electronically through the agency’s e-Manifest program.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
NewsIndustry NewsEnvironmental Management SystemsWaste/HazWasteCAA ComplianceSustainabilityIn-Depth ArticleCWA ComplianceEnvironmentalEnglishSustainabilityESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance)Focus AreaUSA
2026-06-26T05:00:00Z
Multi-media inspections are back: How to prepare for comprehensive EPA and state audits
Regulators have returned to routine, in-person inspections, and many are no longer limited to a single program. EPA and state agencies are again conducting multi-media inspections that review air, water, and hazardous waste compliance in one visit. For facilities, this shift raises the stakes. An issue in one program can quickly lead inspectors into others, especially when records or operations do not align.
Most inspectors now arrive with background data already reviewed. Electronic submissions, air reports, discharge monitoring reports, and hazardous waste filings are compared against what they see on site. When numbers, dates, or practices do not match, the scope of the inspection often expands.
What inspectors are really evaluating
While documents are important, inspectors focus on whether procedures match actual operations. They will often start with a walk-through of the facility, tracing how materials move through production and become emissions, discharges, or wastes.
For example:
- Air compliance may be checked by reviewing fuel use, hours of operation, or control device logs.
- Stormwater compliance often involves visual checks for exposed materials and condition of controls.
- Hazardous waste inspections typically focus on labeling, container condition, and accumulation practices.
The common thread is consistency. If a plan says one thing but operators do another, it is likely to result in a finding.
Common gaps seen during multi-media inspections
Across industries, several issues appear repeatedly:
- Records that do not match across programs (e.g., waste logs vs. manifests)
- Missing or incomplete inspection logs for air or stormwater systems
- Assumptions about exemptions without supporting documentation
- Satellite accumulation areas managed informally outside environmental oversight
- Housekeeping issues that create unintended stormwater exposure
Many of these are not complex violations. They are breakdowns in communication, training, or follow-through.
A practical way to prepare
Facilities can improve readiness by conducting an internal, cross-media review that mirrors an actual inspection. This is more effective than reviewing each program in isolation.
Start with a process-based walk-through:
- Identify where raw materials enter the facility
- Follow how they are used, stored, and handled
- Note where wastes, emissions, or discharges are generated
- Confirm how each is managed and documented
At each step, ask two questions:
- Is this activity reflected accurately in our records and plans?
- Would an operator explain it the same way it is written?
This approach often reveals gaps that are not obvious during a desk review.
A recent case: How one issue expands the scope
At a mid-sized manufacturing facility, inspectors began with a routine hazardous waste review. They noticed that waste logs showed periodic disposal of solvent residues, but there were no related air records for emissions tied to cleaning operations.
This led inspectors to review the facility’s air permit assumptions. They found that solvent use had increased over time, but the facility had not updated its potential-to-emit calculations. What started as a simple waste review expanded into an air applicability concern.
The facility ultimately faced findings in both programs, not because of a single major violation, but because information did not align across systems.
Strengthening compliance across programs
Preparation does not require building new systems. It requires making sure existing ones are aligned and consistently followed.
Focus on:
- Clear ownership of compliance tasks across departments
- Regular cross-checks between records (air, water, waste)
- Training staff on how their daily tasks affect compliance
- Maintaining documentation that supports assumptions, exemptions, and limits
Facilities that treat compliance as a connected system, not separate programs, are better positioned during inspections.
Key to remember: A multi-media inspection looks for consistency across air, water, and waste programs, not just isolated compliance. If your records and operations tell the same story, you are far less likely to face expanded scrutiny.
Most Recent Highlights In Transportation
NewsHazardous WasteIndustry NewsWaste GeneratorsEnglishWasteEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleWaste/HazWasteFocus AreaUSA
2026-06-25T05:00:00Z
Hazardous waste episodic events: What to do when a bad month happens
Every generator has that month. A tank clean-out gets scheduled; a forklift punctures a tote, and suddenly you've generated way more hazardous waste than you normally would. If you're a Very Small Quantity Generator (VSQG) or Small Quantity Generator (SQG), that one bad month could technically bump you into Large Quantity Generator (LQG) status, potentially subjecting the facility to LQG requirements such as contingency planning, personnel training, and biennial reporting.
The good news is that EPA built in an escape hatch. The 2016 Generator Improvements Rule added 40 CFR Part 262, Subpart L (the "episodic event" provision), which lets you keep your normal generator category for that month, if you follow the rules in 40 CFR 262.232 exactly.
Scenario 1: The planned tank clean-out
Picture a metal finishing shop that's normally an SQG, generating about 400 kg/month of spent plating solution. They finally get around to cleaning out an old process tank that's been sitting idle for three years. That clean-out produces about 1,800 kg of sludge in one shot and enough to push them into LQG numbers for the month.
Since this is something the facility planned and scheduled for, it's a planned episodic event. Here's what the employer would need to do:
- Notify EPA (or the delegated state agency) at least 30 calendar days before the clean-out starts, using EPA Form 8700-12. Include the start/end dates, why the event is happening, estimated waste types and quantities, and a 24-hour emergency contact.
- Double-check the facility's EPA ID number to make sure it is current.
- Stage the waste properly with compliant containers or tanks and labeled with the episodic event start date.
- Get it manifested and shipped off-site within 60 calendar days of the start date.
- Hang onto every record including the notification, manifests for 3 years after the event ends.
Scenario 2: The unplanned spill
Next, picture a packaging plant. They are a VSQG generating around 80 kg/month. They have a forklift punch a hole in a 275-gallon tote of listed solvent and by the time cleanup is done, they're looking at about 900 kg of contaminated absorbent and solvent residue. Nobody planned this. It's not part of normal operations. That makes it an unplanned episodic event. Here is what they should do:
- They have 72 hours to notify EPA or the state by phone, email, or fax. There will be no time to fill out paperwork first.
- Follow that up by submitting EPA Form 8700-12 after the fact, documenting what happened since you couldn't give advance notice.
- Keep the spill cleanup waste separate from your routine waste streams and label it with the episodic start date.
- The same 60-day shipping window and 3-year recordkeeping requirement apply here too.
The things you can't skip
Whether the event is planned or unplanned, there are a handful of conditions that apply across the board and missing any one of them could cost you the episodic event relief entirely.
- One event per year, period. Both VSQGs and SQGs get exactly one episodic event a year unless they petition the Regional Administrator under 40 CFR 262.233 for a second. That second one must be the opposite type, so if your first was planned, the next must be unplanned.
- The clock doesn't wait. Exactly 30 days out for planned and 72 hours for unplanned are required. Miss either window or you lose the relief entirely, meaning full LQG status kicks in for that period.
- The 60-day shipping clock starts on day one of the event, not when you send the notification, so make sure to track it immediately.
- Manifest the waste properly. Episodic waste can ship under the standard Subpart B manifest rules, even in the same load as your regular waste.
- Write everything down. Three years of solid records such as dates, causes of event, quantities, and where it went is what separates a clean inspection from an enforcement headache.
Keys to remember: The episodic event provision rewards generators who plan, classify the event correctly, notify on time, ship within 60 days, and document everything for three years.
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2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
Virginia reinstates power plant CO2 budget program
Effective date: April 24, 2026
This applies to: Power plant owners
Description of change: The Virginia Department of Environmental Quality reinstated the Virginia CO2 Budget Trading Program Regulation, which implements the Regional Greenhouse Gas Initiative (RGGI). Participation in the RGGI was stopped in 2023, but the state will resume participation on July 1, 2026, the same date on which the compliance requirements take effect.
The regulation requires fossil fuel-fired units that serve an electricity generator with a capacity of 25 megawatts or more to obtain enough allowances to cover CO2 emissions, which they can purchase in the September and December RGGI auctions.
The department also adopted amendments to the regulations, including establishing a one-time 6-month control period from July 1, 2026, to December 31, 2026.
Related state info: Clean air operating permits state comparison
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2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
North Carolina approved revisions to wastewater discharge rules
Effective date: May 1, 2026
This applies to: Facilities with domestic wastewater discharges up to 2 million gallons per day
Description of change: The North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) adopted a rule that adds a permitting option to the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) program for facilities with domestic wastewater discharges of up to 2 million gallons per day.
DEQ removed the ban on new or expanded discharges of oxygen-consuming waste when the 7Q10 and 30Q2 flows are both 0 for these facilities. In other words, it allows systems to discharge domestic wastewater to zero-flow receiving streams, provided the system:
- Meets qualifying criteria,
- Complies with specific effluent limits, and
- Uses low-energy methods before discharging wastewater to the receiving stream.
It’ll likely benefit areas where the cost of piping to a higher-flowing stream farther away is prohibitive.
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2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
New Hampshire updates sludge management rules
Effective date: May 15, 2026
This applies to: Owners and operators of drinking water and wastewater treatment plants that generate sludge; land application sites; and facilities that treat, manage, or dispose of sludge
Description of change: The New Hampshire Department of Environmental Services amended sludge management rules. Major changes include:
- Reinstating 5-year site and facility permit renewals (instead of 10 years),
- Adding annual reporting requirements for sludge haulers (which already apply to septage haulers), and
- Requiring all applications to be submitted electronically.
The rule also codifies per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) sampling (implemented in 2019 for the sludge quality certificate program).
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2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
New Jersey adopts permanent remediation standards for PFAS
Effective date: June 15, 2026
This applies to: Contaminated sites subject to the remediation regulations for contaminated groundwater, soil, and soil leachate
Description of change: The New Jersey Department of Environmental Protection (NJDEP) formally adopted its interim remediation standards for specific per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS), including:
- Groundwater quality standards for hexafluoropropylene oxide dimer acid and its ammonium salt (GenX chemicals); and
- Soil and soil leachate remediation standards for:
- Perfluorononanoic acid (PFNA);
- Perfluorooctane sulfonate (PFOS);
- Perfluorooctanoic acid (PFOA);
- GenX chemicals; and
- Methanol.
The interim standards have been in place since 2022 and 2023, requiring regulated entities to conduct remediation to ensure these PFAS are cleaned up.
Additionally, the NJDEP amended the technical requirements to mandate analyses of the following chemicals in all media when contaminants are unknown or not well documented at a contaminated site:
- PFNA,
- PFOS,
- PFOA,
- GenX chemicals, and
- 2,3,7,8-tetrachlorodibenzo-p-dioxin.
Most Recent Highlights In Safety & Health
NewsHazardous WasteWaste HandlersChange NoticesChange NoticeWasteWaste/HazWasteWaste ManagementEnvironmentalNevadaEnglishFocus Area
2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
Nevada adds requirements for hazardous waste recyclers
Effective date: June 8, 2026
This applies to: Hazardous waste recyclers
Description of change: The State Environmental Commission adopted regulations to add requirements for entities that recycle certain hazardous waste, including compliance with:
- Certain federal requirements;
- Local zoning requirements, if applicable;
- Specific reporting and notification requirements; and
- Other particular regulations of the commission.
The rules also:
- Exempt owners and operators of certain facilities that recycle certain hazardous materials without storing those materials before they’re recycled from the above requirements, and
- Add fees for written determinations (required to construct or operate a facility or mobile unit for hazardous waste recycling) and for the facilities that recycle certain hazardous materials without storing those materials before they’re recycled.
NewsToxic Substances Control Act - EPAChange NoticesChange NoticeTSCA ComplianceToxic Substances - EPACaliforniaEnvironmentalEnglishFocus Area
2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
California adds TPhP nail products to Priority Products list
Effective date: October 1, 2026
This applies to: Nail products containing triphenyl phosphate (TPhP) at concentrations greater than 250 parts per million (ppm)
Description of change: The California Department of Toxic Substances Control added nail products with concentrations of 250 ppm or more of TPhP to the Priority Product list, making the substance subject to the Safer Consumer Products (SCP) Regulations.
By November 30, 2026, manufacturers must submit a Priority Product Notification. By March 30, 2027, manufacturers must submit:
- A Chemical Removal Intent/Confirmation Notification,
- A Product Removal Intent/Confirmation Notification,
- A Product-Chemical Replacement Intent/Confirmation Notification, or
- A Preliminary Alternatives Analysis Report or alternate reporting options.
NewsIndianaSafe Drinking WaterChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishUnderground Injection ControlFocus Area
2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
Indiana adds permanent underground carbon dioxide storage rules
Effective date: June 10, 2026
This applies to: Entities that seek to participate in carbon sequestration projects
Description of change: The Natural Resources Commission adopted rules for permanent underground carbon dioxide storage, establishing:
- The rules for entities seeking to petition the Indiana Department of Natural Resources to issue involuntary integration orders for pore spaces, and
- The rules for storage operators seeking to apply for certificates of project completion.
These regulations add options for entities; the requirements apply only if the options are utilized.
The rules impact entities seeking to participate in carbon sequestration projects. The regulations also affect pore space owners and surface owners.
NewsTier II Inventory ReportingIndustry NewsIndustry NewsCERCLA, SARA, EPCRAEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)Safety Data Sheet ReportingEnvironmentalEnglishSARA ComplianceFocus AreaUSA
2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
EPA aligns EPCRA rules with OSHA’s HazCom amendments
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule on June 22, 2026, conforming the hazardous chemical inventory reporting regulations under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration’s (OSHA’s) Hazardous Communication (HazCom) standard amendments of 2012 and 2024.
Who’s covered?
The final rule applies to facilities regulated under EPCRA Sections 311 and 312. These facilities are:
- Required by OSHA’s HazCom standard to maintain Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) for hazardous chemicals on-site at or above the reporting threshold, and
- Required by EPA’s EPCRA Section 312 rules (40 CFR Part 370) to submit annual hazardous chemical inventory reports (commonly known as Tier II reports) for the same chemicals by March 1.
Covered facilities submit SDSs and annual inventory reports to the State Emergency Response Commission (SERC), Local Emergency Planning Committee (LEPC), and local fire department.
How does this impact facilities?
EPA’s final rule replaces the previous EPCRA hazard categories with OSHA’s GHS-aligned hazard classes and hazard categories (totaling 118), which are already used in SDSs. Facilities must use OSHA’s hazard classes with their categories for SDS submissions and hazardous chemical inventory reports required under EPCRA Sections 311 and 312.
Note: SDSs for substances already contain the updated hazard classes and hazard categories. SDSs for mixtures must incorporate them by November 2027.
What’s the compliance timeline?
Covered facilities must use the new hazard categories by January 1, 2028. EPA expects facilities to incorporate them into the reporting year 2027 Tier II report (due March 1, 2028).
Key to remember: EPA has aligned regulations under EPCRA Sections 311 and 312 with OSHA’s HazCom amendments for hazardous chemical reporting requirements.
NewsProcess Safety ManagementRisk Management ProgramRisk Management ProgramCAA ComplianceIn-Depth ArticleEnglishSafety Data SheetsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyGeneral Duty ClauseEnvironmentalFocus AreaHazardous Materials Safety - OSHAHazard CommunicationGeneral Duty ClauseAir ProgramsUSA
2026-06-23T05:00:00Z
CSB mounts pressure on OSHA, EPA over deadly process safety gap
Sugar may seem pretty harmless. However, a deadly explosion at a Kentucky caramel coloring facility reveals how this assumption can lead to disaster. The Chemical Safety and Hazard Investigation Board (CSB) is again urging OSHA and EPA to address a gap in their chemical safety regulations.
The board is calling for them to tackle “reactive hazards.” These are the hazards CSB says triggered the tragedy. The familiar message has been repeated since 2002, but the alarm bells grow louder and more urgent now. These warnings are not just for OSHA and EPA. They are also for chemical plants and food ingredient manufacturers. Despite not being covered in the process safety and risk management standards, reactive hazards can and have led to catastrophe.
Runaway reaction
CSB determined that the explosion happened when a 2,500-gallon reactor experienced a runaway decomposition reaction. The reaction involved an “invert sugar” ingredient used to make caramel coloring. It rapidly increased the temperature and pressure. Then it overwhelmed the reactor’s emergency pressure relief system.
The reactor ruptured violently. Two workers died when the blast damaged a control room 40 feet from the reactor. Debris from the incident traveled as far as 400 feet beyond the facility fence line. It also caused approximately $40 million in damage.
CSB found that the reactor’s emergency pressure relief system would have needed to be about four times larger. This would have allowed it to safely relieve pressure generated during the runaway reaction.
Failure to recognize the hazard
CSB’s investigation found that the company did not understand the severe reactive hazards associated with the sugar ingredient. According to the board, this failure contributed to an undersized pressure relief system. It also created confusion on the day of the incident about the increasing pressure.
The report further states that the company’s lack of knowledge stemmed from:
- An incomplete investigation of the ingredients’ reaction potential,
- A lack of industry guidance on the safe manufacture of caramel coloring, and
- No warning on the safety data sheet (SDS) of reaction hazards.
SDS lacked critical information
The board found that the SDS provided by the sugar manufacturer did not warn of its reactivity hazards. CSB concluded that safety information communicated in sugar ingredient SDSs can vary significantly among suppliers. The board noted that improved hazard information in SDSs can help prevent future sugar decomposition incidents. CSB is urging industry groups and suppliers who manufacture invert sugar or corn syrup to update their SDSs for decomposition hazards.
Known regulatory gap
The report emphasizes a gap in:
- OSHA 29 CFR 1910.119, Process Safety Management of Highly Hazardous Chemicals (PSM); and
- EPA 40 CFR 68, Chemical Accident Prevention Provisions, also known as the Risk Management Program (RMP).
That gap is a lack of coverage of facilities processing chemicals with reactive hazards that could have catastrophic consequences.
The Kentucky caramel coloring plant was not subject to PSM and RMP. Had the facility been required to implement either regulation, the reactor designers would have had a better opportunity to be aware of the sugar ingredients’ decomposition hazards, says CSB. The board argues that this may have resulted in a safer design of the emergency pressure relief system.
Repeated recommendations
Since 2002, CSB has reiterated its recommendations for OSHA and EPA to fill the regulatory gap. Neither agency has implemented those recommendations.
Over that same period, the board investigated 15 additional incidents involving reactive chemicals not covered by PSM and RMP. Those incidents resulted in 31 fatalities and hundreds of injuries.
CSB is not deterred
CSB again recommends that OSHA and EPA broaden the coverage of PSM and RMP, respectively, to achieve more comprehensive control of reactive hazards.
Both OSHA and EPA currently use chemical lists to identify the processes subject to coverage. However, CSB claims the two agencies did not adequately consider reactive chemical hazards when developing those chemical lists. As a result, many reactive chemicals are currently not covered.
Word for employers and safety professionals
The latest report highlights the need for:
- Facilities to review not just the SDS for their chemicals but also additional sources of information about their reactive hazards.
- Chemical plants and food manufacturers to address reactive hazards regardless of coverage under 1910.119 and Part 68. At a minimum, these facilities may already be required to meet OSHA’s General Duty Clause and EPA’s Clean Air Act General Duty Clause.
Key to remember
The latest CSB report taps OSHA and EPA to address reactivity hazards. It is also a wake-up call for facilities to understand their reactive chemical hazards. What’s more, the report calls on chemical and food ingredient manufacturers to revisit their SDSs regarding reactive hazards.
Most Recent Highlights In Human Resources
NewsIndustry NewsWaste IdentificationEnglishWasteWaste ManagementEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleWaste/HazWasteFocus AreaUSA
2026-06-18T05:00:00Z
Hazardous waste determinations in practice: Lessons from aerosols, residues, and empty containers
Hazardous waste determinations remain one of the most common sources of noncompliance under RCRA. The requirement is simple on paper. Generators must determine whether a material is a hazardous waste at the point of generation. In practice, facilities often struggle with how the rules apply to everyday situations. Aerosol cans, process residues, and empty containers are frequent gray areas that lead to inconsistent decisions, inspection findings, and, in some cases, enforcement.
At the core, the regulatory expectation is clear: Generators must evaluate each waste to determine if it's listed or exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste (40 CFR 262.11). That evaluation must be made when the waste is first generated and must be documented. The challenge isn't the rule itself but how it applies to materials that fall between operational categories — products, wastes, and residuals.
Aerosols: When a common waste becomes a compliance risk
Aerosol cans are widely used across industries for maintenance, coatings, and cleaning. Facilities often assume that once a can is “empty” or depressurized, it's no longer subject to hazardous waste rules. That assumption can be risky.
If an aerosol can contains a listed solvent or exhibits ignitability (D001), it's a hazardous waste unless managed under an exclusion or alternative standard. Since 2019, many aerosol cans can be managed as universal waste (40 CFR Part 273), which simplifies handling. However, this option introduces its own requirements, including labeling, accumulation time limits, and proper puncturing practices.
A common issue arises at puncturing stations. For example, a maintenance shop installs a puncturing device and begins draining leftover propellant and product into a drum. The cans themselves may now meet the empty container standard, but the collected liquid often remains hazardous waste. In several inspections, regulators have cited facilities not for the cans, but for failing to characterize the accumulated liquid or for allowing it to evaporate without proper controls.
The lesson is straightforward: Shifting management methods (e.g., puncturing or using universal waste standards) doesn't eliminate the obligation to evaluate all resulting waste streams.
Residues: Small quantities, big implications
Residues are another frequent source of confusion. These can include paint booth sludge, tank bottoms, and material left in process equipment. Facilities sometimes view these materials as insignificant or assume they take on the classification of the original product. In reality, residues must be evaluated as newly generated wastes.
For example, a facility cleaning a parts washer may generate a sludge that contains spent solvent. Even if the waste solvent was originally a listed waste (e.g., F003 or F005), the generator must determine whether the residue is itself a listed waste or exhibits a characteristic. Missteps often occur when facilities rely on outdated Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) or assume that dilution or drying changes the classification.
Another scenario involves “letting residues dry out” in containers before disposal. While intended to reduce volume, this practice can be interpreted as treatment if it's done to change the waste’s characteristics (40 CFR 260.10 definition of treatment). For generators without a permit, this creates additional compliance risk.
The key takeaway is that residues aren't an afterthought. They are distinct waste streams that require their own evaluation and, in some cases, can trigger more stringent requirements than expected.
Empty containers: A rule often misapplied
The empty container rule (40 CFR 261.7) is widely cited but frequently misunderstood. A container that held hazardous waste is considered empty if all wastes have been removed using common practices (e.g., pouring, pumping), and no more than 1 inch of residue remains (or 3 percent by weight for smaller containers).
In practice, facilities often overapply this rule. For example, a drum that held a listed solvent may be declared empty even though significant sludge remains at the bottom. Inspectors routinely check this by tipping containers or visually assessing residue. If the container doesn't meet the standard, it's still subject to full hazardous waste requirements.
Another common issue involves containers that held acute hazardous waste (P-listed). These have stricter emptying standards, including triple rinsing. Facilities that overlook this distinction can inadvertently manage regulated containers as non-hazardous scrap.
Importantly, even when a container meets the empty standard, any removed residue must still be evaluated as a waste. The container may be exempt, but the material removed from it isn't.
Bringing it together in practice
Across these examples, a consistent pattern emerges: compliance issues arise when facilities rely on assumptions rather than applying the regulatory framework to each specific situation. Aerosols, residues, and empty containers all sit at the boundary between product use and waste management. That boundary is where most determination errors occur.
Facilities can reduce risk by standardizing evaluation procedures, training staff on common gray areas, and documenting determinations clearly. In inspections, regulators often focus less on the conclusion and more on whether the generator followed a defensible process under 40 CFR 262.11.
Key to remember: Every waste stream, no matter how small or routine, requires a fresh, documented determination at the point of generation. Management shortcuts don't replace regulatory obligations.
NewsHazardous WasteWaste GeneratorsWaste ManifestsWaste/HazWasteWasteEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)In-Depth ArticleEnglishIndustry NewsWaste ReportingWasteTSD FacilitiesWaste ManagementEnvironmentalFocus AreaUSA
2026-06-15T05:00:00Z
Hazardous waste manifest S Codes: What storage and transfer facilities need to know
Have you cracked the “S Code” yet? Starting in 2027, facilities that receive regulated waste for temporary storage and disposal must use S Codes on hazardous waste manifests. If your facility hasn’t made the switch, now’s the time!
Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) requires hazardous waste handlers to track shipments of regulated waste from the generating facility to final treatment, recycling, or disposal. Management Method Codes are key to hazardous waste manifests, and they also affect biennial reporting. The codes answer the vital question, “How’s the hazardous waste managed?"
Effective January 1, 2027, “S Codes” will officially replace Management MethodH141 for Storage and Transfer. EPA adopted these codes to improve the accuracy and transparency of waste tracking, specifically for wastes that travel through transfer facilities before final management. Use this overview to help your facility understand how to comply.
What are S Codes?
In January 2025, EPA added S Codes to the list of Management Method Codes, which identify the type of waste management system used to treat, recover, or dispose of a hazardous waste. Management Method Codes are used for:
- The Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest (EPA Form 8700-22) and Continuation Sheet (EPA Form 8700-22A); and
- The National Biennial RCRA Hazardous Waste Report (EPA Form 8700-13 A/B), known as the Biennial Report.
S Codes apply to receiving facilities (primarily treatment, storage, and disposal facilities (TSDFs)) that temporarily store and then transfer regulated hazardous waste to another receiving facility without treating, recovering, or disposing of the waste. EPA established S Codes to provide more details than code H141 on waste handling activities, improving tracking and transparency. S Codes indicate two things:
- A hazardous waste was received to be stored or transferred; and
- The hazardous waste will be managed later by the final receiving facility using a certain method (i.e., the final management method).
EPA groups S Codes into three categories:
- Transfer off-site for reclamation and recovery,
- Transfer off-site for destruction or treatment prior to disposal, and
- Transfer off-site for disposal.
Each S Code corresponds to a specific final management method. Examples include metals recovery (S010), chemical treatment (S070), and landfilling (S132).
What’s required?
On January 1, 2027, EPA will remove Management Method Code H141 for Storage and Transfer from the e-Manifest and the Biennial Report forms. As a result, hazardous waste handlers must use S Codes instead of code H141 on manifests and the Biennial Report.
S Codes apply to RCRA hazardous waste that’s transferred off-site, impacting:
- Receiving facilities that store and transfer hazardous waste;
- Permitted TSDFs that receive hazardous waste solely for temporary storage and transfer (i.e., it’s the facility’s only management type); and
- Large quantity generators (LQGs) that report wastes shipped to transfer facilities on the Biennial Report.
Hazardous waste manifests
The first receiving TSDF is responsible for choosing and entering the S Codes on manifests. The storage and transfer facility must:
- Identify the S code that best describes how the hazardous waste will be managed by the final receiving facility, and
- Enter the S Code in Item 19 on the manifest and in Item 36 on the continuation sheet (if used).
Generators aren’t responsible for selecting or entering S Codes.
Biennial Reports
LQGs and TSDFs must use S Codes for the Biennial Report on the:
- Waste Generation and Management (GM) Form in Item 3, and
- Waste Received From Off-site (WR) Form in Item F.
LQGs use S Codes on the GM Form for shipments of hazardous waste off-site to a transfer facility for temporary storage and transfer.
TSDFs that receive hazardous waste for temporary storage and transfer off-site use S Codes on the WR Form. These TSDFs must also use Source Code G61 on the GM Form to report shipments of these transferred wastes.
How can facilities prepare?
Help your facility achieve a smooth shift to S Codes by January 1, 2027, with these tips:
- Identify where your facility currently uses code H141.
- Develop a process for transitioning to S Codes exclusively. Consider any changes your facility may need to make to its operations, such as updating software, adjusting procedures, and revising internal guidance documents.
- Train your employees accordingly.
- Set a deadline for making the switch to S Codes. Aim for a date well ahead of January 1, 2027, to give your facility enough time to address any issues that arise.
Key to remember: Starting in 2027, storage and transfer facilities must use S Codes in place of Management Method Code H141 on RCRA hazardous waste manifests and Biennial Reports.
NewsHazardous WasteWaste GeneratorsWaste ManifestsWaste/HazWasteWasteEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)In-Depth ArticleEnglishIndustry NewsWaste ReportingWasteTSD FacilitiesWaste ManagementEnvironmentalFocus AreaUSA
2026-06-15T05:00:00Z
Hazardous waste manifest S Codes: What storage and transfer facilities need to know
Have you cracked the “S Code” yet? Starting in 2027, facilities that receive regulated waste for temporary storage and disposal must use S Codes on hazardous waste manifests. If your facility hasn’t made the switch, now’s the time!
Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) requires hazardous waste handlers to track shipments of regulated waste from the generating facility to final treatment, recycling, or disposal. Management Method Codes are key to hazardous waste manifests, and they also affect biennial reporting. The codes answer the vital question, “How’s the hazardous waste managed?"
Effective January 1, 2027, “S Codes” will officially replace code H141 for Storage and Transfer. EPA adopted these codes to improve the accuracy and transparency of waste tracking, specifically for wastes that travel through transfer facilities before final management. Use this overview to help your facility understand how to comply.
What are S Codes?
In January 2025, EPA added S Codes to the list of Management Method Codes, which identify the type of waste management system used to treat, recover, or dispose of a hazardous waste. Management Method Codes are used for:
- The Uniform Hazardous Waste Manifest (EPA Form 8700-22) and Continuation Sheet (EPA Form 8700-22A); and
- The National Biennial RCRA Hazardous Waste Report (EPA Form 8700-13 A/B), known as the Biennial Report.
S Codes apply to receiving facilities (primarily treatment, storage, and disposal facilities (TSDFs)) that temporarily store and then transfer regulated hazardous waste to another receiving facility without treating, recovering, or disposing of the waste. EPA established S Codes to provide more details than code H141 on waste handling activities, improving tracking and transparency. S Codes indicate two things:
- A hazardous waste was received to be stored or transferred; and
- The hazardous waste will be managed later by the final receiving facility using a certain method (i.e., the final management method).
EPA groups S Codes into three categories:
- Transfer off-site for reclamation and recovery,
- Transfer off-site for destruction or treatment prior to disposal, and
- Transfer off-site for disposal.
Each S Code corresponds to a specific final management method. Examples of these methods include metals recovery (S010), chemical treatment (S070), and landfilling (S132).
What’s required?
On January 1, 2027, EPA will remove Management Method Code H141 for Storage and Transfer from the e-Manifest and the Biennial Report forms. As a result, hazardous waste handlers must use S Codes instead of code H141 on manifests and the Biennial Report.
S Codes apply to RCRA hazardous waste that’s transferred off-site, impacting:
- Receiving facilities that store and transfer hazardous waste;
- Permitted TSDFs that receive hazardous waste solely for temporary storage and transfer (i.e., it’s the facility’s only management type); and
- Large quantity generators (LQGs) that report wastes shipped to transfer facilities on the Biennial Report.
Hazardous waste manifests
The first receiving TSDF is responsible for choosing and entering the S Codes on manifests. The storage and transfer facility must:
- Identify the S code that best describes how the hazardous waste will be managed by the final receiving facility, and
- Enter the S Code in Item 19 on the manifest and in Item 36 on the continuation sheet (if used).
Generators aren’t responsible for selecting or entering S Codes.
Biennial Reports
LQGs and TSDFs must use S Codes for the Biennial Report on the:
- Waste Generation and Management (GM) Form in Item 3, and
- Waste Received From Off-site (WR) Form in Item F.
LQGs use S Codes on the GM Form for shipments of hazardous waste off-site to a transfer facility for temporary storage and transfer.
TSDFs that receive hazardous waste for temporary storage and transfer off-site use S Codes on the WR Form. These TSDFs must also use Source Code G61 on the GM Form to report shipments of these transferred wastes.
How can facilities prepare?
Help your facility achieve a smooth shift to S Codes by January 1, 2027, with these tips:
- Identify where your facility currently uses code H141.
- Develop a process for transitioning to S Codes exclusively. Consider any changes your facility may need to make to its operations, such as updating software, adjusting procedures, and revising internal guidance documents.
- Train your employees accordingly.
- Set a deadline for making the switch to S Codes. Aim for a date well ahead of January 1, 2027, to give your facility enough time to address any issues that arise.
Key to remember: Starting in 2027, storage and transfer facilities must use S Codes in place of code H141 on RCRA hazardous waste manifests and Biennial Reports.
NewsGreenhouse GasesToxic Substances Control Act - EPAToxic Subtances Control Act - EPATSCA ComplianceMonthly Roundup VideoCAA ComplianceUSAHazard CommunicationEnglishIndustry NewsSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyMaritime SafetyEnvironmentalFocus AreaHazard CommunicationAir ProgramsVideo
EHS Monthly Round Up - May 2026
In this May 2026 roundup video, we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what happened over the past month.
The first compliance date for the revised HazCom standard took effect May 19. Employers who work with chemical substances that are aerosols, desensitized explosives, or flammable gases should start to see updated safety data sheets and labels. On a related note, OSHA revised its HazCom directive for inspectors. It instructs OSHA officers on how to conduct inspections and issue citations under the standard. However, it also provides chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, and employers with insight into what officers will be assessing.
OSHA revoked a standard that prohibited open fires and fires in drums or similar containers in marine terminals. The agency stated that since this is no longer typical practice, removing the standard would lessen the compliance burden without compromising worker safety.
OSHA received the backing of an advisory committee as it advances a comprehensive Tree Care Operations proposal. During the Advisory Committee on Construction Safety and Health meeting, the group unanimously voted in favor of moving ahead. This clears the path for OSHA to publish its long-awaited proposal.
Turning to environmental news, EPA extended the submission date for the TSCA Section 8(d) Health and Safety Data Reporting Rule one-time report from May 22, 2026, to May 21, 2027.
EPA published the first round of expiring confidential business information claims for information submitted under TSCA. The list covers claims that expire from June 22 to July 31, 2026. Businesses must submit extension requests to keep the information protected.
EPA postponed the effective compliance date for trichloroethylene users with TSCA Section 6(g) exemptions until pending judicial review is concluded. The agency has yet to establish a new compliance date.
And finally, EPA revised HFC use restrictions for certain subsectors. This applies to entities that are subject to the 2023 Technology Transition Rule requirements. The agency also proposed a rule that would exempt transportation refrigeration units from leak repair requirements regardless of charge size.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
NewsGreenhouse GasesEnforcement and Audits - OSHAMonthly Roundup VideoWalking Working SurfacesCAA ComplianceUSAInjury and Illness RecordkeepingLaddersEnglishIndustry NewsEnforcement and Audits - OSHAOSHA InspectionsSafety & HealthInjury and Illness Recording CriteriaGeneral Industry SafetyEnvironmentalFocus AreaAir ProgramsVideo
EHS Monthly Round Up - February 2026
In this Februrary 2026 roundup video, we'll discuss the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what happened over the past month.
Fatal work injuries fell 4 percent in 2024, largely due to a decline in workplace drug- and alcohol-related overdoses. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, overdose fatalities fell from 512 in 2023 to 410 in 2024. Across all types of workplace incidents, there were 5,070 fatal work injuries in 2024, compared to 5,283 in 2023. Transportation incidents continue to be the most frequent type of fatal event, accounting for over 38 percent of all occupational fatalities in 2024.
OSHA is fast-tracking a proposal to remove the 2036 obligation to upgrade fall protection systems on fixed ladders that extend over 24 feet. This follows an industry petition from major chemical and petroleum industry groups, which argue the provision is unjustified, costly, and not supported by the rulemaking record. OSHA frames the upcoming proposed action as deregulatory, allowing employers to update fixed ladders at the end of their service lives. We’ll provide updates as more information becomes available.
As OSHA leans into “deregulatory” actions, lawmakers are moving to pressure the agency to issue “regulatory” rulemaking to protect American workers. The latest legislative wave of bills aims to fill regulatory gaps, tackle emerging hazards, expand OSHA authority, and raise penalties. Topics addressed by these bills include musculoskeletal disorders, heat stress, infectious diseases, wildfire smoke, and workplace violence.
In a recently issued letter of interpretation, OSHA states that a burn injury caused by a personal lithium-ion battery fire is work related if it occurs in the workplace during assigned working hours. The letter details an incident where an employee was burned when their rechargeable lithium-ion batteries for e-cigarettes sparked a fire after coming into contact with a key used for work.
A new report from the Department of Labor Office of Inspector General concludes that OSHA struggles to meet its mission, particularly in high-risk industries like healthcare, construction, and manufacturing. Several pages point to OSHA’s difficulties in effectively enforcing annual injury and illness reporting requirements, reaching the nation’s high-risk worksites for inspection, and addressing workplace violence by regulatory or other action.
Turning to environmental news, EPA extended the deadlines for Facility Evaluation Reports and related requirements for coal combustion residuals facilities. In most instances, the deadlines have been moved one or two years out.
And finally, EPA announced a final rule eliminating the 2009 Endangerment Finding and related greenhouse gas emission requirements for on-highway vehicles and vehicle engines. When the final rule takes effect, manufacturers and importers of new motor vehicles and motor vehicle engines will no longer have to measure, report, certify, or comply with federal greenhouse gas emission standards.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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Most Popular Highlights In Environmental
NewsIndianaSafe Drinking WaterChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishUnderground Injection ControlFocus Area
2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
Indiana adds permanent underground carbon dioxide storage rules
Effective date: June 10, 2026
This applies to: Entities that seek to participate in carbon sequestration projects
Description of change: The Natural Resources Commission adopted rules for permanent underground carbon dioxide storage, establishing:
- The rules for entities seeking to petition the Indiana Department of Natural Resources to issue involuntary integration orders for pore spaces, and
- The rules for storage operators seeking to apply for certificates of project completion.
These regulations add options for entities; the requirements apply only if the options are utilized.
The rules impact entities seeking to participate in carbon sequestration projects. The regulations also affect pore space owners and surface owners.
NewsToxic Substances Control Act - EPAChange NoticesChange NoticeTSCA ComplianceToxic Substances - EPACaliforniaEnvironmentalEnglishFocus Area
2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
California adds TPhP nail products to Priority Products list
Effective date: October 1, 2026
This applies to: Nail products containing triphenyl phosphate (TPhP) at concentrations greater than 250 parts per million (ppm)
Description of change: The California Department of Toxic Substances Control added nail products with concentrations of 250 ppm or more of TPhP to the Priority Product list, making the substance subject to the Safer Consumer Products (SCP) Regulations.
By November 30, 2026, manufacturers must submit a Priority Product Notification. By March 30, 2027, manufacturers must submit:
- A Chemical Removal Intent/Confirmation Notification,
- A Product Removal Intent/Confirmation Notification,
- A Product-Chemical Replacement Intent/Confirmation Notification, or
- A Preliminary Alternatives Analysis Report or alternate reporting options.
2026-01-02T06:00:00Z
Florida adds grease waste hauler requirements
Effective date: December 7, 2025
This applies to: Haulers of grease waste from food establishments
Description of change: The Florida Department of Environmental Protection established removal and disposal regulations for haulers of grease waste from originator food establishments. Haulers must dispose of grease waste at certified facilities and document removals and disposals using a service manifest.
NewsIndustry NewsEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)Mobile Emission SourcesCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleFocus AreaEnglishAir ProgramsUSA
2024-10-07T05:00:00Z
Vehicle emissions defeat devices: Steer clear!
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulates emissions from motor vehicles, engines, and the fuels used to operate them. The agency requires vehicle manufacturers to install control devices that limit the amount of air pollutants a vehicle may emit. However, defeat devices attempt to detour around these controls and allow emissions beyond federal limits.
Excess vehicle emissions can threaten the health of others, impair state and local efforts to maintain national air quality standards, and — as one company and its owner learned — subject you and your business to steep monetary penalties.
Steer clear of defeat devices to ensure a smooth regulatory road.
Company learns multimillion-dollar lesson
EPA and the U.S. Department of Justice reached a settlement agreement with a North Carolina automotive parts company and its owner for violating the Clean Air Act (CAA) requirements for mobile sources by:
- Manufacturing, selling, and installing more than 250,000 defeat devices on diesel pickup trucks; and
- Installing aftermarket defeat devices on hundreds of diesel pickup trucks.
The company and its owner face civil and criminal consequences and will pay a total of $10 million in fees and penalties.
Civil enforcement
A July 2024 consent decree (pending court approval) requires both parties to pay a combined $7 million penalty. It also bans the company and owner from:
- Manufacturing, selling, offering to sell, and installing defeat devices;
- Transferring intellectual property to help others make or sell defeat devices; and
- Investing in or profiting from other businesses’ defeat devices.
Criminal enforcement
Both the company and owner pleaded guilty to conspiring to violate the CAA. The federal court ordered the company to pay a $2.4 million fine and complete three years of organizational probation. It also ordered the owner to pay a $600,000 fine and serve three years of probation.
What are defeat devices?
A defeat device is any component that “bypasses, impairs, defeats, or disables the control of emissions of any regulated pollutant” (40 CFR 1068.101(b)(2)). Put simply, it’s an illegal device that removes or disables a vehicle’s emissions controls.
There are generally two types of defeat devices: hardware (such as modified automotive parts) and software (like delete tuners). In fact, many of the devices consist of both types that work in tandem. Federal law (and EPA regulations at 1068.101(b)) bans defeat devices used to swerve around vehicle emissions controls. Section 203(a)(3) of the CAA prohibits anyone from:
- Tampering with an EPA-certified vehicle’s emissions control devices to remove them or make them inoperative before selling the vehicle,
- Knowingly tampering with an EPA-certified vehicle’s emissions control devices to remove them or make them inoperative after the vehicle is sold and delivered to the purchaser, and
- Knowingly manufacturing, selling, offering to sell, or installing defeat devices that bypass, defeat, or render inoperative any emission control device.
Common emission control devices include:
- Onboard diagnostic systems,
- Catalytic converters,
- Electronic control units,
- Fuel systems, and
- Diesel particulate filters.
Who do the regulations affect?
The prohibition on defeat devices applies to everyone, from the original equipment manufacturer that installs the vehicle emissions controls to the vehicle owner and operators.
The 1990 CAA Amendments expanded the tampering provision in Section 203(a)(3) to include “any person.” Further, EPA’s regulations at 1068.101(b) “apply to everyone,” such as:
- Vehicle manufacturers;
- Vehicle dealers;
- Automobile repair shops;
- Commercial mechanics;
- Fleet operators;
- Aftermarket automotive part manufacturers, sellers, and installers;
- Owners; and
- Operators.
Compliance tips
Consider these helpful suggestions for maintaining compliance:
- Check and comply with your state and local regulations, as they may be more stringent than federal requirements and impose additional rules. For example, states may require certified technicians to conduct automotive maintenance services on emission controls. States may also prohibit operating, selling, and/or registering tampered vehicles.
- Purchase aftermarket automotive parts only from reputable sources. Obtain proof that the aftermarket parts won’t increase emissions.
- Self-disclose any potential violations you find to EPA and/or the state environmental agency. EPA and many states will lower or waive civil penalties for self-reporting violations.
The case against this automotive parts company and owner serves as a multimillion-dollar reminder about making, selling, installing, or using defeat devices — steer clear!
Key to remember: Steer clear of defeat devices that try to detour around EPA’s vehicle emissions controls to ensure a smooth regulatory road.
NewsMunicipal WastewaterChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishFocus AreaNorth Carolina
2026-06-24T05:00:00Z
North Carolina approved revisions to wastewater discharge rules
Effective date: May 1, 2026
This applies to: Facilities with domestic wastewater discharges up to 2 million gallons per day
Description of change: The North Carolina Department of Environmental Quality (DEQ) adopted a rule that adds a permitting option to the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) program for facilities with domestic wastewater discharges of up to 2 million gallons per day.
DEQ removed the ban on new or expanded discharges of oxygen-consuming waste when the 7Q10 and 30Q2 flows are both 0 for these facilities. In other words, it allows systems to discharge domestic wastewater to zero-flow receiving streams, provided the system:
- Meets qualifying criteria,
- Complies with specific effluent limits, and
- Uses low-energy methods before discharging wastewater to the receiving stream.
It’ll likely benefit areas where the cost of piping to a higher-flowing stream farther away is prohibitive.
NewsIndustry NewsWaste IdentificationEnglishWasteWaste ManagementEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleWaste/HazWasteFocus AreaUSA
2026-06-18T05:00:00Z
Hazardous waste determinations in practice: Lessons from aerosols, residues, and empty containers
Hazardous waste determinations remain one of the most common sources of noncompliance under RCRA. The requirement is simple on paper. Generators must determine whether a material is a hazardous waste at the point of generation. In practice, facilities often struggle with how the rules apply to everyday situations. Aerosol cans, process residues, and empty containers are frequent gray areas that lead to inconsistent decisions, inspection findings, and, in some cases, enforcement.
At the core, the regulatory expectation is clear: Generators must evaluate each waste to determine if it's listed or exhibits a characteristic of hazardous waste (40 CFR 262.11). That evaluation must be made when the waste is first generated and must be documented. The challenge isn't the rule itself but how it applies to materials that fall between operational categories — products, wastes, and residuals.
Aerosols: When a common waste becomes a compliance risk
Aerosol cans are widely used across industries for maintenance, coatings, and cleaning. Facilities often assume that once a can is “empty” or depressurized, it's no longer subject to hazardous waste rules. That assumption can be risky.
If an aerosol can contains a listed solvent or exhibits ignitability (D001), it's a hazardous waste unless managed under an exclusion or alternative standard. Since 2019, many aerosol cans can be managed as universal waste (40 CFR Part 273), which simplifies handling. However, this option introduces its own requirements, including labeling, accumulation time limits, and proper puncturing practices.
A common issue arises at puncturing stations. For example, a maintenance shop installs a puncturing device and begins draining leftover propellant and product into a drum. The cans themselves may now meet the empty container standard, but the collected liquid often remains hazardous waste. In several inspections, regulators have cited facilities not for the cans, but for failing to characterize the accumulated liquid or for allowing it to evaporate without proper controls.
The lesson is straightforward: Shifting management methods (e.g., puncturing or using universal waste standards) doesn't eliminate the obligation to evaluate all resulting waste streams.
Residues: Small quantities, big implications
Residues are another frequent source of confusion. These can include paint booth sludge, tank bottoms, and material left in process equipment. Facilities sometimes view these materials as insignificant or assume they take on the classification of the original product. In reality, residues must be evaluated as newly generated wastes.
For example, a facility cleaning a parts washer may generate a sludge that contains spent solvent. Even if the waste solvent was originally a listed waste (e.g., F003 or F005), the generator must determine whether the residue is itself a listed waste or exhibits a characteristic. Missteps often occur when facilities rely on outdated Safety Data Sheets (SDSs) or assume that dilution or drying changes the classification.
Another scenario involves “letting residues dry out” in containers before disposal. While intended to reduce volume, this practice can be interpreted as treatment if it's done to change the waste’s characteristics (40 CFR 260.10 definition of treatment). For generators without a permit, this creates additional compliance risk.
The key takeaway is that residues aren't an afterthought. They are distinct waste streams that require their own evaluation and, in some cases, can trigger more stringent requirements than expected.
Empty containers: A rule often misapplied
The empty container rule (40 CFR 261.7) is widely cited but frequently misunderstood. A container that held hazardous waste is considered empty if all wastes have been removed using common practices (e.g., pouring, pumping), and no more than 1 inch of residue remains (or 3 percent by weight for smaller containers).
In practice, facilities often overapply this rule. For example, a drum that held a listed solvent may be declared empty even though significant sludge remains at the bottom. Inspectors routinely check this by tipping containers or visually assessing residue. If the container doesn't meet the standard, it's still subject to full hazardous waste requirements.
Another common issue involves containers that held acute hazardous waste (P-listed). These have stricter emptying standards, including triple rinsing. Facilities that overlook this distinction can inadvertently manage regulated containers as non-hazardous scrap.
Importantly, even when a container meets the empty standard, any removed residue must still be evaluated as a waste. The container may be exempt, but the material removed from it isn't.
Bringing it together in practice
Across these examples, a consistent pattern emerges: compliance issues arise when facilities rely on assumptions rather than applying the regulatory framework to each specific situation. Aerosols, residues, and empty containers all sit at the boundary between product use and waste management. That boundary is where most determination errors occur.
Facilities can reduce risk by standardizing evaluation procedures, training staff on common gray areas, and documenting determinations clearly. In inspections, regulators often focus less on the conclusion and more on whether the generator followed a defensible process under 40 CFR 262.11.
Key to remember: Every waste stream, no matter how small or routine, requires a fresh, documented determination at the point of generation. Management shortcuts don't replace regulatory obligations.
Most Popular Highlights In Transportation
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyFederal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), DOTFocus AreaVision - Motor CarrierUSAEnglishTransportationPhysical exam - Motor Carrier
2022-01-24T06:00:00Z
Alternate vision standard final rule
FMCSA published the alternative vision standard final rule with an effective date of March 22, 2022, for CMV drivers who do not meet the vision standard in the worse eye. If specified conditions and vision criteria are met, the driver can qualify for the vision portion of the DOT exam based on the vision in the better eye with or without corrective lenses.
To be qualified for the alternate vision standard (§391.44), the driver must:
- Have in the better eye a field of vision of at least 70 degrees in the horizontal meridian and vision of at least 20/40 with or without corrective lenses;
- Be able to recognize the colors of traffic signals with red, green, and amber;
- Have a stable vision deficiency; and
- Have had sufficient time for the vision deficiency to be stable.
To meet the alternate standard:
- An ophthalmologist or optometrist evaluates the driver;
- The ophthalmologist or optometrist completes the new Vision Evaluation Report Form MCSA-5871;
- The certified medical examiner performs a DOT exam not more than 45 days from the date on the MCSA-5871 and determines if the driver meets the alternative vision standard, as well as FMCSA’s other medical qualification standards;
- The driver receives a Medical Examiner’s Certificate (MEC), Form MCSA-5876, for a maximum of 12 months if determined to be medically qualified; and
- Drivers qualified under the alternative vision standard for the first time must satisfactorily complete an employer-administered road test before operating in interstate commerce, subject to limited exceptions.
This final rule eliminates the need for the current federal vision exemption program and the grandfather provision in §391.64. Individuals currently qualified under the grandfather provision and exemption holders have one year after the effective date of this rule to comply.
NewsIndustry NewsFleet OperationsEnglishFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleHighway use - Mileage taxFleet TaxesInternational Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA)Fleet taxesTransportationUSA
2024-09-19T05:00:00Z
Your HUT decals are expiring: Registration open Oct. 1
For carriers operating in New York, registration and decals expire December 31, 2024, for the Highway Use Tax (HUT) and Automotive Fuel Carrier (AFC) programs. Take steps now to make sure you receive your new decals before the current ones expire. You need a new certificate of registration and decal for each vehicle. And you must place the new decals on your vehicles before January 1, 2025.
The period to renew your 24th series HUT and AFC certificates of registration begins October 1, 2024. Act now to avoid delays and keep your highway use tax credentials active.
To-do before October 1
Get ready for renewal by taking the following steps now:
- File all your highway use tax returns that are due.
- Pay your taxes. The state will not issue a new certificate of registration if you owe back taxes. Before you apply to renew, make sure that you’ve paid all taxes due under any of the programs administered by the New York State Tax Department, including:
- HUT,
- personal income tax,
- International Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA),
- sales tax, and
- withholding tax.
- Create an online account if you do not already have one and you want to renew your credentials and pay online (https://www.oscar.ny.gov/).
- Make sure your vehicle registration information is correct and accurate. Review and update your information as soon as possible. Incorrect information will delay the processing of your certificates and decals.
Beginning October 1
Once the renewal period opens, renew your credentials and pay your renewal fees online with One Stop Credentialing and Registration (OSCAR).
Submit your renewal application by November 30, 2024, to make sure you receive your decals in time to place them on your vehicles before January 1, 2025.
If you are already enrolled in OSCAR, use your current OSCAR password to renew online.
If you are not enrolled, visit OSCAR, and select Enroll Now. You must have a United States Department of Transportation (USDOT) number and an employer identification number (EIN).
To renew your registration:
- Visit the OSCAR website and select HUT Renewal from the Business Type drop-down.
- Enter your information in the USDOT#, NYS Tax ID#, and Password fields, then select Log in.
- If you have 300 or fewer vehicles, choose either:
- Renew all HUT/AFC Certificates of Registration to renew all your active current series permits, or
- Select HUT/AFC Certificates of Registration to renew specific permits.
- If you have more than 300 vehicles, choose either:
- Renew all to renew all your active current series permits, or
- File renewal to renew select permits.
If you are unable to renew electronically, you may file Form TMT-1.2, Renewal Application for Highway Use Tax (HUT) and Automotive Fuel Carrier (AFC) Certificates of Registrations and Decals – 25th Series.
Key to remember: Take steps now to renew your NY HUT and ensure you receive your new decals before the current ones expire.
NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyCompliance, Safety, Accountability CSAPerformance ManagementCompliance, Safety, Accountability CSAFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishTransportationRegistration and Permits - Motor CarrierUSA
2022-12-02T06:00:00Z
Understanding the National Safety Code (NSC): Part 1
These days, operating a commercial fleet involves many different compliance issues, regulations, standardized licensing, and permits involved with operating a commercial trucking vehicle are the norm. In Canada, provincial regulations governing commercial vehicles, drivers, and motor carriers are based on the National Safety Code (NSC) standards.
But what is the NSC and what are the standards? It’s a complicated answer because there are 16 standards involved. The NSC is designed to create a comprehensive code of minimum performance standards for the safe operation of passenger and commercial vehicles. The NSC provides guidance for legislative, regulatory, and administrative action by each jurisdiction and focuses on three components:
- Drivers,
- Vehicles, and
- Motor carriers.
Over this three-part article series, we will look at each of these components and break down the NSC standards that fit within each of the three. You’ll learn what is key to know to ensure compliance, and more importantly, a safer operation.
What is the NSC?
In 1987, the federal, provincial, and territorial Ministers responsible for Transportation and Highway Safety recognized that due to the deregulation of transportation, there was a need for harmonization and reciprocity in the management of commercial vehicles across Canada. The ministers then signed a memorandum of understanding to develop and implement the NSC to encourage road safety, promote efficiency in the motor carrier industry, and achieve consistent safety standards. The National Safety Code standards remain important instruments of public policy in promoting public safety and the safe and efficient movement of people and goods on Canadian roads.
What are the 16 standards?
The NSC is a set of minimum performance standards, applying to all persons responsible for the safe operation of commercial vehicles. There are 16 NSC standards made up of the following:
- Standard 1 Single Driver Licence Concept
- Standard 2 Knowledge and Performance Tests (Drivers)
- Standard 3 Driver Examiner Training Program
- Standard 4 Driver Licencing Classification
- Standard 5 Self-Certification Standards and Procedures
- Standard 6 Determining Driver Fitness in Canada
- Standard 7 Carrier and Driver Profiles
- Standard 8 Short-Term Suspension
- Standard 9 Commercial Vehicle Drivers Hours of Service
- Standard 10 Cargo Securement
- Standard 11 Maintenance and Periodic Inspection
- Standard 12 CVSA On-Road Inspection
- Standard 13 Trip Inspection
- Standard 14 Safety Rating
- Standard 15 Facility Audits
- Standard 16 Entry Level Training (Class 1)
Now that we have a better understanding of what the NSC represents and what the 16 standards are, let’s take a deeper dive into the standards that apply, starting with Motor Carriers.
NSC Standard 14 — Safety Rating
You might be wondering why we are starting with Standard 14. All provinces in Canada are required to issue an NSC number to all commercial carriers in their governing jurisdiction. A Safety Fitness Certificate (SFC) contains the NSC number, which is the unique identifier for each commercial operator. Ontario calls this number a Commercial Vehicle Operator’s Registration or CVOR.
If you have registered a vehicle that is regulated under the National Safety Code program in Canada, you are required to apply for a SFC or CVOR (Ontario). The SFC or CVOR gives you permission to operate a commercial vehicle.
There have been many new changes recently to the process of not only applying for an SFC but also in maintaining the required certificate. For example, in Alberta, it includes completing an NSC knowledge test online or NSC in a registry office, completing an NSC audit within 12 months of obtaining your SFC, and renewing your certificate every three years.
A provincial authority may not issue a safety fitness certificate to an extra-provincial motor carrier undertaking unless the provincial authority has determined that the undertaking has a “satisfactory”, “satisfactory unaudited” or “conditional” safety rating, as set out in section 5 of Part C of NSC Standard #14.
Safety Rating Categories
Responsibility for motor carrier safety resides, first and foremost, with motor carrier management. The Safety Rating Standard (Standard 14) establishes the motor carrier safety rating framework by which each jurisdiction shall assess the safety performance of motor carriers. There are four safety rating categories as follows:
| Rating | Details |
| Satisfactory-Unaudited | Assigned to all new commercial motor carriers. This rating does not change until a carrier has been audited. |
| Satisfactory-Audited | Assigned when a motor carrier has successfully passed a facility audit and all 3 thresholds - convictions, at-fault collisions and inspections - are below 85%. |
| Conditional | Assigned to a motor carrier who has failed a facility audit and/or 1 or more thresholds are at or above 85%. |
| Unsatisfactory | Assigned by Carrier and Vehicle Safety Services when a carrier is deemed unfit. |
- Using the information in the motor carrier profile;
- Assigning a value to each of the data listed in the motor carrier profile taking into account its severity and potential safety impact, in accordance with the National Safety Code Standard 7, Carrier Profile:
- For the 24 months preceding the determination; or
- In the case of a motor carrier whose motor carrier profile was established less than 24 months prior to the determination, for the period since its establishment;
- Normalizing the weighted data using the motor carrier’s fleet size to reflect the motor carrier’s exposure to risk; and
- Assigning a safety rating to the motor carrier in accordance with the safety rating categories.
The NSC’s safety fitness rests on three building blocks:
- NSC Standard 7: Carrier and Driver Profiles
- NSC Standard 14: Safety Rating
- NSC Standard 15: Facility Audit
Together, these standards provide the safety rating and management framework by which each jurisdiction assesses the safety performance of motor carriers. In part 3, we’ll cover Standards 7 and 15 in greater detail.
Key to remember: We have just touched the surface of the NSC standards and covered likely one of the most important when it comes to maintaining a safe rating and compliance with Jurisdictional regulations.
NewsIndustry NewsEnglishFuel/Mileage Tax PermitsIRP and IFTA recordkeepingFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleFleet OperationsFleet TaxesInternational Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA)Fleet taxesTransportationUSA
2023-07-21T05:00:00Z
Tips for successful IFTA quarterly reports
Second quarter fuel tax reports are due by July 31 for carriers operating under the International Fuel Tax Agreement (IFTA). These reports document the mileage traveled and fuel purchased in each state or province during the reporting period. Check out the following tips to avoid common mistakes that could get you audited.
Tip 1: Correctly report operations under trip permits
Include miles traveled while using a fuel trip permit:
- In “total IFTA miles,” and
- As part of the total IFTA miles traveled in the applicable jurisdiction.
Do not include them as taxable miles traveled for that jurisdiction. For fuel purchases made while operating under a fuel trip permit, include the following for each jurisdiction:
- Total gallons purchased (to accurately calculate the miles per gallon), and
- Tax-paid gallons purchased, only if taxes were paid at the time the fuel was purchased.
Tip 2: Account for all miles, even gap miles
Always do your best to accurately report miles traveled on your quarterly IFTA tax report. Remember that you must report every mile driven by every vehicle licensed under IFTA on your report.
“Gap miles” are the difference in the miles recorded for a trip on your trip sheet and the actual miles traveled based on the beginning and ending odometer or hubometer readings for that trip. Gap miles will create an issue when an audit occurs.
Gap miles should be allocated to the jurisdiction(s) where the travel most likely occurred.
Tip 3: Use the correct rate chart
Jurisdiction tax rates often change from quarter to quarter. Be sure to use the tax rate chart for the specific quarter being filed. Rate charts are available online at iftach.org.
Tip 4: Double-check your tax-paid gallons
The total tax-paid gallons purchased should never exceed the total gallons purchased.
If your operation includes bulk storage, only include in tax-paid gallons the number of gallons actually removed from bulk storage and delivered into your IFTA qualified vehicles during the reporting period being filed.
Hint: Generally speaking, total gallons and total tax-paid gallons should be the same, unless:
- Fuel receipts are missing;
- Fuel was not tax paid (i.e., purchased on an Indian reservation); or
- Fuel records do not include all required elements.
| Learn more about the recordkeeping requirements for IFTA and IRP. |
Tip 5: File every quarter, even if you have no activity to report
Tax returns are required even if no operations were conducted or no taxable fuel was used during the reporting period. Returns that are not filed or not paid in full are considered late and can be assessed penalties and interest.
Tip 6: Check your lease
Review all lease contracts carefully and ensure the IFTA tax reporting responsibility is clearly defined.
| Get more detail about leasing requirements for motor carriers. |
Key to remember: Carefully documenting miles traveled and fuel purchased for your IFTA fleet can help you avoid common mistakes that could get you audited.
NewsIndustry NewsCarrier profiles, safety ratings and facility auditsSafety fitness certificatesFleet SafetyRecordkeepingRecordkeepingBusiness policies and procedures - Motor CarrierFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleFleet OperationsEnglishTransportationBusiness planning - Motor CarrierUSA
2023-04-14T05:00:00Z
Carrier profile advice for Canadian carriers
The National Safety Code (NSC) Standard 7 requires all Canadian jurisdictions to maintain a Carrier Profile on those carriers regulated under the provincial NSC programs. While the Carrier Profile is designed to identify high-risk motor carriers to provincial regulators, did you know that you can use it to evaluate the effectiveness of your safety and maintenance programs? Your Carrier Profile is a “Report Card” of your company’s compliance with on-road and administrative requirements and performance based on information collected from across Canada and the United States. The data on your Carrier Profile can tell you in what areas you’re doing well and in what areas you’re doing not so well. The key is to regularly request your profile and analyze it for potential areas for improvement. Here, we take a look at how you can get your hands on the data and how to use it to your advantage.
What exactly is on my Carrier Profile and how do I get one?
Carrier profile formats vary between jurisdictions. The standard Carrier Profile includes information regarding:
- A motor carrier’s Safety Fitness Rating;
- A motor carrier’s Operating Status (federal or provincial); and
- Twelve months of events involving NSC vehicles registered in the motor carrier’s name and the persons driving those vehicles. Events include:
- Convictions;
- CVSA inspections;
- Reportable collisions from all Canadian jurisdictions; and
- Violations identified in the province where no charges were laid.
Only the motor carrier named in the Carrier Profile, their authorized agent, or an enforcement agency can obtain a copy of the full profile information. Many provinces allow you to request the profile online. Contact your provincial transportation safety office for guidance.
How to read and interpret your Carrier Profile Report
The Carrier Profile is divided into five parts:
- Part 1 - Carrier Information
- Part 2 - Conviction Information
- Part 3 - CVSA Inspection Information
- Part 4 - Collision Information
- Part 5 - Violation Information
Part 1 – Carrier Information
Part 1 of the Carrier Profile gives an overall snapshot of a company’s current safety status including current Safety Fitness Rating, , and a summary of Conviction, CVSA Inspection, and Collision event history. Part 1 always displays the last 12 months of data, and the motor carrier’s current Safety Fitness Rating as of the date the Carrier Profile was requested.
Also displayed is the motor carrier’s current Operating Status of “provincial” or “federal” (as applicable by jurisdiction). Having the proper Operating Status is critical to a motor carrier’s operation. Motor carriers found operating with the wrong Operating Status may be charged with an offence and detained until the appropriate Operating Status has been obtained.
What to look for: When reviewing this part of your profile, always ensure the data here looks current and accurate.
Part 2 – Conviction Information
The information recorded in this part reflects convictions shown in order of offence date, with the most recent shown first. Conviction points remain on a Carrier’s Profile for one year from the conviction date.
Points ranging from 0 to 5 are assigned to a conviction depending on the severity of the offence with 5 points assigned to the most serious offences. These point values are recommended by the Canadian Council of Motor Transportation Administrators (CCMTA) at the national level to provide consistency amongst jurisdiction’s monitoring programs. As an example:
- Faulty lights, not resulting in Out of Service, 1 point
- Speed 21−30 kilometres per hour over, 2 points
- No permit or contravene conditions of permit, 3 points
- Drive while disqualified, 5 points
What to look for: Convictions here can help clue you into where you may need to make adjustments. For example, if you find that your drivers are frequently speeding, you should address it and possibly look at your policies and disciplinary process.
Part 3 – CVSA Inspection Information
Part 3 provides information on inspections conducted under the Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) inspection program both in Canada and the U.S. for the time period requested. CVSA inspections remain on a Carrier’s Profile for one year from the date the inspection occurred.
What to look for: In this part you can determine the breakdown of defects from “Out of Service” and “Requires Attention” to assist you with identifying possible deficiencies in your inspection and maintenance program.
Part 4 – Collision Information
Part 4 provides collision information supplied by enforcement agencies across Canada and the U.S. The collisions are considered reportable under the jurisdiction’s legislation in which the collision event occurred. Collision points remain on a Carrier’s Profile for one year from the date the event occurred.
All reportable collisions appear on a carrier’s profile at least 45 days after the event date. This is to allow motor carriers the option to have the collision evaluated for preventability prior to the collision appearing on the profile.
What to look for: Reviewing and evaluating this part can help you identify areas where safety and compliance can be improved and potential opportunities for additional training.
Part 5 – Violation Information
Part 5 is a summary of violations documented by enforcement agencies. Each violation is a contravention of an act or regulation where no prosecution has been entered.
No points will be assigned to violations under this part; however, violations may be considered when reviewing a motor carrier’s overall safety fitness. Violations will remain on a Carrier’s Profile for one year from the date the event occurred.
Information in this part includes an analysis of violations by offense type, occurrence date, time, vehicle plate number, location of the offense, a generic offense description, and the driver’s name.
What to look for: This part will assist you in identifying the main areas of non-compliance with regulations such as Hours of Service.
A useful tool, if used properly
Although the Carrier Profile only provides after-the-fact information on motor carriers on-road and administrative compliance, the Carrier Profile can help you to become more proactive rather than reactive. You can look forward and adjust your driver training programs, driver coaching frequency maintenance programs, vehicle inspections...etc. etc... You may need to address and update policies and procedures...
Carriers that do not make changes and that continuously represent an unacceptable risk to the public may have their safety fitness certificates cancelled. This would result in the carrier not being able to register or operate an NSC vehicle. Failing to address known issues appearing on your carrier profile is risky business. Be sure to regularly request your profile and track your progress.
Key to remember: The Carrier Profile allows motor carriers to identify and take appropriate corrective action thereby helping prevent further violations.
NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyExpert InsightsBusiness policies and procedures - Motor CarrierBusiness planning - Motor CarrierFocus AreaFleet OperationsEnglishTransportationBusiness planning - Motor CarrierUSA
2026-06-12T05:00:00Z
Expert Insights: Motus — FMCSA's forward momentum
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) has rolled out the first phase of Motus, a new USDOT registration system designed to streamline compliance and modernize the way motor carriers, brokers, and supporting companies manage their regulatory obligations. Motus, which is Latin for movement/motion, represents a significant shift from the current systems and will involve consolidating USDOT numbers, biennial updates, hazmat registrations, and other filings into one secure, user friendly platform.
The initiative aims to simplify processes, enhance fraud prevention, and provide registrants with intuitive tools such as auto population, real time data validation, and mobile accessibility.
Troubleshooting Motus issues
Many carriers are running into obstacles when registering for Motus. The most frequent issue is not being able to claim DOT numbers, and the most common reason for this is that the carrier didn’t update its information before the deadline.
For example, only the company official can claim your USDOT number. This means that if your company official left earlier this year and you didn’t update this information in your portal, then you won’t be able to claim your USDOT number.
If you’re struggling to get your Motus account set up or claim your USDOT number, you must contact FMCSA at 800-832-5660. FMCSA will only work directly with the motor carrier at this point. Once you have set up your account, you can then grant permissions to other individuals — both within and outside of your organization.
Motus watchouts
Motus gives you more control over your registration, but it also puts more responsibility on you. For example, Motus has simplified applying for operating authority, but knowing which authority your company needs remains unclear. Obtaining the incorrect authority type can be costly, and making mistakes on your application can lead to long delays.
Without the correct authority in place, you may run into:
- A delay in approval, which would lead to a delay in beginning operations.
- Additional application fees, as you may need to reapply.
- Compliance issues, which could lead to expensive fees, audits, or even being placed out of service.
Key to remember: FMCSA has rolled out the first phase of Motus, which aims to streamline and simplify compliance, but it also comes with a few additional challenges for motor carriers.
Most Popular Highlights In Human Resources
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)USAHR ManagementEnglishFocus AreaHuman Resources
2023-09-06T05:00:00Z
Appellate court sided with employee's (almost) 3-year-delayed FMLA claim
Back in October 2018, Laffon had a medical emergency and needed some time off under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA).
Her leave lasted until November 15. Ten days after she returned to work, on November 26, her employer terminated her.
She sued, arguing that the employer retaliated against her because of her FMLA leave.
The catch? She didn't bring the suit until almost three years later.
No link between leave and termination
In court, the employer argued that there was no causal link between Laffon taking FMLA leave and her termination. Although the court documents aren't robust, they do reveal that the employer indicated that Laffon's allegations didn't show that her taking FMLA leave was a factor in the decision to terminate her. The documents showed only that the termination chronologically followed her leave.
The court agreed with the employer. It also agreed that Laffon failed to allege a willful violation of the FMLA, which would allow her to benefit from the FMLA's three-year statute of limitations.
Laffon appealed the case to the Ninth Circuit.
Statute of limitations
Under the FMLA, employees have two years from the date of the last event constituting the alleged violation for which they can bring a claim.
Those two years are extended to three years if the employer's actions were "willful." This means that an employee must show that the employer either knew or showed reckless disregard for whether its conduct violated the FMLA.
Ruling overturned
Fast forward to August 2023, when the Ninth Circuit reversed the lower court's decision. It indicated that, based on Laffon's amended complaint and liberally construing the law, her allegations establish that her leave was causally connected to her termination and that the employer's action (her termination) was willful.
Glymph v. CT Corporation Systems, No. 22-35735, Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals, August 22, 2023.
Key to remember: Terminating an employee soon after returning from FMLA leave is risky, unless there is a clear, well-documented, non-leave-related reason. Case documents did not show such a clear reason, which can also increase the risk of a willful finding. Employees have time to file claims, even years.
NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementEnglishFocus AreaHuman ResourcesUSA
2026-06-23T05:00:00Z
Elective procedures and the FMLA
With employees being more open to obtaining elective medical procedures again, employers might see an increase in employees asking for time off for them. Employees might be entitled to job-protected leave under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) for such procedures. Just because a procedure is deemed “elective” doesn’t always matter.
What the FMLA regulations say
Employers might think that the FMLA regulations say that employees don’t get FMLA leave for elective procedures. The regulations, however, make it clear that, in some situations, employees may, and that just because a procedure is elective doesn’t automatically mean it’s not FMLA-qualifying.
“Conditions for which cosmetic treatments are administered (such as most treatments for acne or plastic surgery) aren’t serious health conditions unless inpatient hospital care is required or unless complications develop.” [29 CFR 825.113(d)]
The word “unless” means that there are exceptions.
Therefore, if an employee has an overnight stay in a health care facility, whether the procedure is elective or not, it won’t matter; it’s an FMLA-qualifying serious health condition. If, for example, a perfectly healthy employee decides to donate a kidney to a sibling, the time off for the procedure and recovery from it will fall under the FMLA, as the employee will be kept overnight in the hospital — it will be an inpatient situation.
Another example would include a situation in which an employee’s procedure results in a period of incapacity for more than 3 consecutive calendar days, and any subsequent treatment that also involves:
- Treatment two or more times, within 30 days of the first day of incapacity, unless extenuating circumstances exist, or
- Treatment by a health care provider on at least one occasion, which results in a regimen of continuing treatment under the supervision of the health care provider.
Some of the more common elective procedures employers might have employees ask for time off include:
- Hysterectomy
- Liposuction
- Breast reduction/augmentation
- Joint replacement
- Facelift
- Rhinoplasty
- Cataract removal
- Tonsillectomy
Some elective procedures are designed to improve the quality of life as opposed to saving lives in emergencies.
Employers shouldn’t focus on the name of the condition or procedure, but on whether the condition meets the FMLA’s definition of a serious health condition, which is on the last page of the certification.
When employees ask for time off for what might be an FMLA-qualifying reason, employers should treat the situation as they would any FMLA leave request, including asking for a certification supporting the need for leave. It should give employers enough information to determine if the condition meets the FMLA’s definition of a serious health condition.
Key to remember: Employees could be entitled to FMLA leave for elective medical procedures, depending on all the facts involved.
NewsI-9sI-9sHuman Resource ManagementEmployee RelationsIn-Depth ArticleUSAHR ManagementEnglishTalent Management & RecruitingIndustry NewsRecruiting and hiringAudits - HRApplications/ApplicantsEmployee RelationsHR GeneralistAssociate RelationsFocus AreaHuman Resources
2022-12-22T06:00:00Z
Name change tops list of employer questions about Form I-9
Does the Form I-9 need to be updated when an employee’s name changes?
That was the most frequently asked listener question during a recent J. J. Keller & Associates webcast about the Form I-9.
Name change not (technically) required on Form I-9
When an employee has a legal name change because of marriage, divorce, or another reason, the U.S. Citizenship and Immigration Services (USCIS) does not require employers to update the Form I-9.
However, the agency does recommend that the employer note the name change in Section 3 of the form. The agency suggests that employers maintain correct information on the form.
Employers need to be sure of an employee’s identity
Employers shouldn’t simply take an employee’s word for it when it comes to a name change. The agency recommends that employers ask for proof.
Once again, the agency doesn’t require this, but it is certainly a good idea. The agency recommends that employers take steps to be reasonably assured of an employee’s identity, and this may involve asking the employee to provide documentation of the legal name change.
Keeping documentation of name change a best practice
Information about a name change is kept with the employee’s I-9.
That way if an employer’s I-9 forms are audited by a government agency, and the employee’s form is inspected, having this documentation shows the actions that were taken to verify identity.
Accepting documents with different names
An employer may also encounter name issues when an employee presents the documents needed to initially complete the Form I-9.
If an employee presents two documents with different last names, and one name matches the name the employee entered in Section 1, the employer may accept the documents.
The USCIS suggests that an employer attach a brief memo to the form that explains the reason for the different names. Any supporting documentation provided by the employee should also be attached.
The employee is not required to provide the documents explaining the name change. However, the employer is allowed to ask for other acceptable documents if there is something suspicious about the document with a different name that makes the employer question whether it is genuine.
Key to remember: An employer is not required to update an employee’s Form I-9 when the employee’s name change, but it is recommended.
NewsIndustry NewsEnglishHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)LeaveIn-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementLeaveUSAFocus AreaHuman Resources
2025-01-21T06:00:00Z
DOL: Employers are to treat state paid leave like workers’ comp or STD
Time off under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) is unpaid. Employees, however, have the right to use their accrued paid time off (PTO) to supplement their income while they’re on unpaid FMLA leave. Employers may also require employees to use their PTO in these types of situations, and many do.
When employees receive pay from other sources, like short-term disability (STD) or workers' compensation, they may not “double dip” and use their PTO for the FMLA leave (and employers may not require it). They might, however, use PTO to “round out” their pay since these other benefits usually only provide a percentage of income.
What about situations where employees take paid leave under state laws?
The DOL chimes in
In an interpretive opinion letter released on January 14, 2025, the U.S. Department of Labor (DOL) said that employers should treat state paid leave the same.
Employers need to keep some information in mind:
- Designating leave: When employees take leave under a state paid family or medical leave law if the leave is also covered by the FMLA, employers must designate it as FMLA leave and give the employee a designation notice, which should include the amount of leave to be counted against the employee’s FMLA leave entitlement.
- Receiving state pay: During FMLA leave, when employees receive pay from a state family or medical leave law, the FMLA “substitution” provision does not apply to the part of leave that is paid. As a result, employees may not use PTO, and employers may not require it when leave is paid by state law.
- Supplementing pay: If employees are receiving pay through state paid family or medical leave that doesn’t fully pay for their FMLA-covered leave, and employees have available PTO, employers, and employees may agree, where state law permits, that employees may use their PTO to supplement their pay under a state leave law.
- Qualifying conditions: If employees use state paid family and medical leave for reasons that don’t qualify as FMLA leave, employers may not count the leave against the employee's FMLA leave entitlement. If, for example, a state paid family leave law allows for paid leave to care for a family member with a medical condition that is not an FMLA-qualifying serious health condition or serious injury or illness, employers may not count the leave taken under such circumstances against the employee’s FMLA leave entitlement.
- Exhausting leave: If employees’ leave under a state paid family or medical leave program ends before the employees have exhausted the 12 weeks of FMLA leave, employees are still entitled to the FMLA protections. If, therefore, employees use up all the state paid leave, after that, the FMLA substitution provision would apply and employees would be able to elect, or the employer would be able to require the employee, to substitute employer-provided accrued paid leave.
Key to remember: Employers may not require employees to use their accrued paid time off when employees are receiving pay under a state paid leave law. Employees are also not allowed to do so. Employees, however, might be able to use PTO to round out their income and bring it to full pay.
NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementEnglishUSAFocus AreaHuman Resources
2023-11-07T06:00:00Z
Shhhh — FMLA and confidentiality
When processing a leave request under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA), employees share personal information with their employers. Often, this includes medical facts. Without these details, employers are usually unable to determine whether the situation qualifies for FMLA protections.
The FMLA, however, restricts what employers may do with the information.
Keep it confidential
Employers must keep FMLA records and documents relating to certifications, recertifications, or medical histories of employees or their family members as confidential medical records. They must keep this information in separate files/records apart from the usual personnel files.
The FMLA does not dictate how employers should keep the information confidential. Storing it under lock and key and restricting access to only those who handle FMLA leave would be appropriate. That could be in a secure cabinet or office.
Employers often confuse the privacy provisions of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) with the confidentiality provisions of the federal Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA). The ADA, however, was the inspiration for the FMLA’s confidentiality rules.
Exceptions
Employers may share some information in certain situations:
- Leave administrators may inform supervisors and managers about necessary restrictions of an employee’s work or duties and necessary accommodations.
While leave administrators are free to inform managers that an employee is on FMLA leave, and when the employee is expected to be out, they should not disclose the employee’s medical information.
Leave administrators may request a certification supporting the need for FMLA leave, but they must keep the details on that certification confidential.
In that same vein, managers should not ask employees for more medical information. Managers may tell other employees that someone is out, but should not share more details without the employee’s voluntary permission.
If managers find out information about an employee (or family member) medical situation, perhaps because an employee volunteered it, the manager should keep the details private and secure.
- First aid and safety personnel may be informed (when appropriate) if the employee’s physical or medical condition might require emergency treatment.
Like managers, leave administrators must keep employee FMLA information confidential. If, however, an employee has a workplace medical emergency, leave administrators may inform first aid and safety personnel about the condition if helpful.
- Government officials investigating compliance with FMLA (or other pertinent law) must be provided relevant information upon request.
If a representative of the U.S. Department of Labor were to ask to see FMLA certifications or other related documents, employers are required to provide them.
Key to remember: Employers have a responsibility to keep certain employee FMLA information private and secure, with limited exceptions. Failure to do so could risk a claim.
NewsIndustry NewsAt-Will EmploymentSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyTerminationHR GeneralistIn-Depth ArticleUSAHR ManagementEnglishTerminationFocus AreaHuman Resources
2024-08-28T05:00:00Z
When to skip a PIP and move to terminate an employee
The U.S. Bureau of Labor statistics reported in July 2024 that there are 8.2 million job openings in the U.S., but only 7.2 million unemployed workers.
With that in mind, employers might choose to hang onto employees even if they’re under performing. But what about when complaints are rolling in from different angles? Take, for example, a lackluster supervisor who’s annoying employees and disappointing customers.
An employer could be hesitant to let the supervisor go, especially if there’s no documentation backing up claims of misconduct. The employer must weigh their options to decide if putting the supervisor on a performance improvement plan (PIP) or moving right to termination is the ideal choice.
At-will employment
For starters, in most states employers may terminate an employee at-will, meaning they can fire employees for pretty much any reason as long as it doesn’t discriminate against someone in a protected class based on sex, age, race, religion, etc. Employers also cannot terminate in retaliation for an employee making a claim of harassment, discrimination, or safety concerns.
Aside from these limits, employers can terminate employees for good cause, bad cause, or no cause at all.
PIP or terminate
Deciding whether to put an employee on a PIP or terminate must be decided on a case-by-case basis.
A PIP is usually for job performance issues (hence, performance improvement plan). This could mean anything from not making enough sales to being inept at the job’s essential functions. If job performance doesn’t improve under the PIP, termination may be the end result depending on company policies and practices.
Even if an employee has job performance issues, the employer can terminate without going through the PIP process first, unless the usual process is to implement a PIP with employees who have had similar problems. In that case, not doing a PIP could be seen as discrimination against an employee, especially if the person falls into a protected class.
Workplace misconduct, however, is another situation altogether. This could be anything from a one-off poor joke to pervasive harassment. Snapping at customers or coworkers (or worse), for example, is a conduct issue. An employer could issue a warning or move right to termination if the behavior is clearly illegal or a serious threat to workplace safety.
| Read more: ezExplanation on discharging employees |
Termination tips
If an employer decides to terminate, they should treat the employee as respectfully as possible during the termination process. Also, an employer should carefully and clearly communicate the job-related reasons for the termination to avoid any hint of discrimination. Lastly, an employer should document the reasons and reiterate the steps taken leading up to the termination and keep those records handy in case the employee files a wrongful termination lawsuit.
Key to remember: Employers sometimes struggle when making termination decisions. Having a process in place and documenting steps along the way can help if a case lands in court.
Most Popular Highlights In Safety & Health
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyForklifts and Powered TrucksFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishPIT InspectionsUSA
2022-07-05T05:00:00Z
Safely maintaining forklift batteries
If employees work with forklifts and their batteries, they must understand the hazards of the liquid in those batteries.
According to OSHA’s forklift standard at 1910.178(g)(7), “When charging batteries, acid shall be poured into water; water shall not be poured into acid.” This can be confusing because workers commonly add distilled water to battery cells.
What OSHA is referring to is the initial mixing of sulfuric acid with water to create an electrolyte solution. Electrolyte solution is added to battery cells when the acid level is so low that a charge cannot be maintained.
What is an electrolyte?
Pure water will not carry an electric current, but adding sulfuric acid creates an electrolyte solution that allows the electric current to pass. Employees may need to mix concentrated sulfuric acid with distilled (pure) water to make the electrolyte solution.
The chemical reaction of mixing sulfuric acid with water can generate heat, resulting in a violent reaction. Because of this reaction, when mixing an electrolyte solution for forklift batteries, always add acid to the water to avoid the hazard of smoking and splattering.
When transferring acid from a large container, it’s a good idea to use a siphon. It’s much easier to control, reducing the chance for spilling or splashing. Splashed acid will eat holes in cloth and skin, so wearing protective equipment during this task is essential, including gloves, long sleeves, and goggles.
Maintaining battery cells
Normal forklift operations cause water in the battery cells to evaporate. If the fluid level in the cells is low, add distilled water before charging. Never add water immediately after a charge.
When the electrolyte level is low, clean off the top of the battery. Remove the battery’s filter caps and add distilled water to the cells. Be sure that the filter caps are tightened securely after the cells are filled.
If workers are not fully trained and authorized to perform this function, they must not attempt to add fluids of any kind to batteries.
NewsIndustry NewsLockout/TagoutSafety & HealthLockout/TagoutGeneral Industry SafetyIn-Depth ArticleEnglishLockout/Tagout Authorized WorkersFocus AreaUSA
2020-12-30T06:00:00Z
Recognizing lockout/tagout training concerns
All employees involved in lockout/tagout require training. The authorized employees (those doing the maintenance work) have the most responsibility and require the most training. However, affected employees (those who operate machines being serviced) also need some training. In addition, some other employees (those working in an area where lockout or tagout is used) may require training so they don’t inadvertently interfere with the lockout/tagout process.
Retraining is required when there’s a change in the job, equipment, or process. Those changes could impact all categories of employees (authorized, affected, and other).
Retraining is also required when a periodic inspection reveals a problem. The periodic inspection is an annual review of the energy control procedure to ensure that it is adequate and is actually being followed.
Follow the procedures
Mechanics may work on dozens of machines, and each machine may have unique lockout/tagout procedures. But do the mechanics actually read and follow the procedures for each machine? Or do they just “know what to do” based on experience? Could other maintenance staff follow the procedures as written?
Make sure that authorized employees actually follow the procedures. If they are unsure about any part of a procedure, or if they skip a step that doesn’t make sense, then the procedure should be updated.
If additional training is needed, it may be best to conduct the training at the machine and ask the mechanics to indicate where the procedure is unclear. If the questions are more than the training group can handle, you may need to call in an expert (electrician, engineer, etc.).
As necessary, revise the procedure until it’s understandable. You want the procedures to be accurate and easy to use. If veteran mechanics think the procedure is hard to follow (or if they have ideas on how to improve the written steps), you want to correct those issues before contractors or new employees need to rely on the procedure.
Complete and accurate procedures not only keep your company in compliance, but help keep your employees safe.
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyWalking Working SurfacesIn-Depth ArticleWalking Working SurfacesEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2021-12-16T06:00:00Z
Walking-working Surface Handout
Don’t get tripped up by OSHA’s walking-working surfaces standard
There are many slips, trips, and fall hazards on construction sites. Employers must be proactive to find and fix these workplace hazards BEFORE they become an issue. Exposure to these types of hazards can pose a significant risk of death or serious harm to workers.
Employers can use a fall protection method or system that works best for the work operation. Regular inspections and training will help employers prevent and eliminate walking-working surface hazards.
What is a walking-working surface?
OSHA’s 1926.500(b)(2) says a walking-working surface is a horizontal or vertical surface. For example, it would include floors, roofs, ramps, bridges, runways, formwork, and concrete reinforcing steel but not include ladders, vehicles, or trailers where employees can stand. You must identify and eliminate walking-working surface hazards with proactive measures such as fall protection. Fall protection includes using: covers, designated areas, guardrails, handrails, personal fall protection systems, ladder safety systems, and safety nets.
Employers should perform regular inspections to identify and mitigate slips, trips, and fall hazards.
Things to keep in mind while performing these inspections include:
- Passageways, storerooms, service rooms, and walking-working surfaces must be kept clean, orderly, and sanitary.
- Walking-working surfaces must have a proper load rating to safely support loads applied to it.
- If a corrective action or repair cannot be made immediately, the hazard must be guarded to prevent employees from using the walking-working surface.
- False floors, platforms, and mats must be provided when wet processes are used;
- Hazardous conditions on walking-working surfaces must be corrected or repaired before an employee can use it again.
- Employers must provide safe access and egress to and from walking-working surfaces.
- Protruding objects, loose boards, corrosion, leaks, spills, snow, and ice, are not allowed on walking-working surfaces.
- Only a qualified person can repair structural integrity issues on a walking-working surface.
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthElectrical SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyElectrical SafetyIn-Depth ArticleEnglishClearance DistancesFocus AreaUSA
2025-11-14T06:00:00Z
Beware of these common electrical safety violations
Electrical safety violations are among the most-cited General Industry standards. The combined total citations under 1910.303 and 1910.305 exceeded the machine guarding violations last year. Neither standard requires training, but training could help avoid citations and injuries.
The industries most often cited under those two standards include manufacturing, retail, wholesale, lodging and food service, and transportation and warehousing. OSHA commonly issues citations for things like:
- Using portable fans that were not approved for industrial locations,
- Leaving electrical boxes open,
- Failing to maintain sufficient space around electrical boxes, and
- Improperly using flexible cords or extension cords.
Use equipment properly
Paragraph 1910.303(b) covers examination, installation, and use of equipment. It includes a kind of a “general duty clause” that states, “Electric equipment shall be free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to employees.”
Since electricity could cause serious harm, OSHA can cite that paragraph for a number of hazards. Citations include things like damaged insulation on wiring or exposed electrical parts of equipment motors. However, that isn’t the most frequently cited paragraph.
Sub-paragraph 1910.303(b)(2) gets cited most often. It states, “Listed or labeled equipment shall be installed and used in accordance with any instructions included in the listing or labeling.” Essentially, this tells employers to follow manufacturer instructions when using electrical equipment. OSHA uses this for violations like improperly using power strips or allowing employees to use outlets that were not correctly installed.
For related information, see our article, Five things to know before letting employees work with electricity.
Another frequently cited issue is failing to maintain access and working space around electrical equipment. Paragraph 1910.303(g)(1) requires sufficient access and space to allow safe operation and maintenance, describes specific distances, prohibits using the working space for storage, and requires guarding when live parts are exposed for inspection or service.
Wiring issues
The other commonly-cited electrical standard is 1910.305, covering wiring methods and more. These violations include issues such as outlets or switches without covers, or improperly using flexible cords (such as extension cords) where permanent wiring should be used.
One of the most-cited paragraphs is 1910.305(b)(1)(ii) which says, “Unused openings in cabinets, boxes, and fittings shall be effectively closed.” For example, if a circuit breaker panel has an unused breaker space, it must be filled with a blank. It cannot be left open, and placing tape over the empty slot is not sufficient.
Another frequently-cited paragraph is (g)(2)(iii), which says: “Flexible cords and cables shall be connected to devices and fittings so that strain relief is provided that will prevent pull from being directly transmitted to joints or terminal screws.” OSHA uses this when saws or other equipment gets power through flexible cables coming from an electrical panel.
The Bureau of Labor Statistics lists more than 2,000 injuries from exposure to electricity each year and around 150 deaths per year. Neither of the above standards specifically requires training workers on electrical safety, but employers should provide training on properly using (and not improperly using) electrical equipment and tools. For related information, see our article, What is the difference between qualified and unqualified electrical workers?
Key to remember: Electrical hazards from exposed electrical lines and improperly using equipment could be mitigated by training employees.
NewsPersonal Protective EquipmentIn-Depth ArticleEnglishWork ZonesIndustry NewsSafety VestsFleet SafetySafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyMaritime SafetyWork ZonesFlaggersFocus AreaTransportationUSA
2024-02-20T06:00:00Z
Safety vests: MUTCD overhaul rule shakes up mandates
The Federal Highway Administration (FHWA) finalized sweeping revisions for the 11th edition of the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices for Streets and Highways (MUTCD). Last updated in 2009, the MUTCD is the national standard for traffic signs, signals, and markings, including work zones. Changes took effect January 18.
Section 6C.05 (previously Section 6E.02), is entitled, “High-Visibility Safety Apparel.” It’s noteworthy that FHWA revises that section to replace the reference to the 2004 edition of ANSI/ISEA 107, American National Standard for High-Visibility Safety Apparel and Headwear,” with the 2015 edition.
What about OSHA?
OSHA work zone mandates are short on text, but they're found in 29 CFR 1926 Subpart G, Signs, Signals, and Barricades. The OSHA regulations specifically say:
- 1926.200(g) Traffic control signs and devices. (1) At points of hazard, construction areas shall be posted with legible traffic control signs and protected by traffic control devices. (2) The design and use of all traffic control devices, including signs, signals, markings, barricades, and other devices, for protection of construction workers shall conform to Part 6 of the MUTCD (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
- 1926.201(a) Flaggers. Signaling by flaggers and the use of flaggers, including warning garments worn by flaggers, shall conform to Part 6 of the MUTCD (incorporated by reference, see § 1926.6).
How do OSHA and FHWA relate?
OSHA’s mission is to protect workers. FHWA, an arm of the DOT, aims to protect motorists/pedestrians. Yet, FHWA also provides protection for road workers under:
- 23 CFR 630, Subpart J, Work Zone Safety and Mobility;
- 23 CFR 630 Subpart K, Temporary Traffic Control Devices; and
- 23 CFR 655, Subpart F, Traffic Control Devices on Federal-Aid and Other Streets and Highways.
Both OSHA and DOT refer to the MUTCD for traffic control of work zones. However, the two agencies refer to different editions of the manual:
- FHWA 23 CFR 630 and 655 refer to the MUTCD, December 2023 edition; and
- OSHA 1926.200 and .201 refer only to Part 6 of the MUTCD, December 2009 edition (including Revisions 1 and 2, May 2012).
High-visibility safety apparel and FHWA
FHWA and Section 6C.05 of the 2023 MUTCD require all workers to wear high-visibility safety apparel if they are in the right-of-way and within a “temporary traffic control” (TTC) zone. This includes flaggers and emergency responders, night or day. The apparel must meet Performance Class 2 or 3 requirements of ANSI/ISEA 107-2015. The only exception is for emergency/incident responders and law enforcement in the TTC zone. In those cases, they may wear apparel that meets ANSI/ISEA 207-2006, American National Standard for High-Visibility Public Safety Vests.
In all cases, the apparel background material color must be fluorescent orange-red, fluorescent yellow-green, or a combination of the two. The retroreflective material must be orange, yellow, white, silver, yellow-green, or a fluorescent version of these colors.
High-visibility safety apparel and OSHA
OSHA still adheres to the 2009 MUTCD as revised in 2012. Section 6E.01 requires flaggers to wear high-visibility safety apparel that meets Performance Class 2 or 3 requirements of ANSI/ISEA 107-2004.
The OSHA-adopted MUTCD calls for the apparel background material color to be fluorescent orange-red, fluorescent yellow-green, or a combination of the two. The retroreflective material must be visible from at least 1,000 feet and be orange, yellow, white, silver, yellow-green, or a fluorescent version of these colors. Moreover, the apparel must clearly identify the wearer as a person.
OSHA’s de minimis policy
When both FHWA and OSHA regulations apply, which MUTCD and ANSI standard do you follow? The answer may be found in a May 11, 2004, OSHA letter of interpretation. The letter explains, “Under OSHA's de minimis policy, compliance with more current DOT requirements, or with more current ANSI or other applicable nationally recognized consensus standards, is acceptable, so long as such standards are at least as protective as the OSHA requirement.”
Under OSHA's de minimis policy, the violations have no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health, so they are considered de minimis. De minimis violations of standards exist when you comply with the clear intent of the standard but deviate from its particular requirements, and there’s no direct or immediate impact on the safety and health of workers. OSHA says it does not impose penalties or require correction of de minimis violations.
The letter adds that high-visibility apparel is required not only under 29 CFR 1926 Subpart G but also Section 5(a)(1) of the OSH Act (General Duty Clause) to protect employees exposed to traffic hazards while working in road construction work zones.
Key to remember
FHWA revised the MUTCD, including high-visibility apparel requirements. OSHA’s regulations have not changed, but where FHWA and OSHA both apply, employers may turn to OSHA’s de minimis policy.
NewsIndustry NewsExcavationsSafety & HealthExcavationsGeneral Industry SafetyIn-Depth ArticleEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2021-03-09T06:00:00Z
Avoid placing loads on the leading edges of your excavations
Spoil piles, equipment, and materials placed too close to the leading edge of an excavation could increase the chances for a collapse. Having a competent person assess your excavation for these hazards can reduce the likelihood of an incident occurring:
- Surcharge loads,
- Equipment vibration,
- Adverse weather conditions, and
- Groundwater.
These four hazards can change the condition and classification of soils. A competent person must consider all these hazards when determining if the excavation is safe to enter and how far to place loads away from the leading edge.
Surcharge Loads
Surcharge loads place downward pressures on the surrounding soil. Understanding how load placement can affect soil stability can help your workers prevent a collapse. OSHA 1926.651, Specific Excavation Requirements, requires that materials and equipment are not placed within two feet of an excavation’s leading edge. Many workers incorrectly apply this rule for cave-in prevention. But it’s for preventing things from rolling or falling into the excavation, not for cave-in protection.
Surcharge loads, like spoil piles placed two feet away from the leading edge of an excavation, place downward loads onto the soil. This force puts increasing pressure on the vertical walls of an excavation or trench. As more dirt is added to the pile, the pressure to the sidewalls increases, which eventually can result in a cave-in. Two feet may not be adequate to prevent a cave-in. As more load is placed near the edge from materials, workers, or equipment, the chances for a collapse increase.
Equipment Vibration
The soil surrounding an excavation has the greatest load-bearing capacity when it’s densely packed. You’ll often see workers compacting the soil under roadways, around excavations, or underneath building foundations so that voids can be filled in. If these voids aren’t filled in properly, and the soil is loose and granular, the ground can shift and settle unevenly.
When equipment is operating near the leading edge of an excavation, vibrations in the soil can cause it to lose its density as it separates. Other conditions, such as adverse weather conditions and groundwater, can increase the effects of soil separation, leading to the failure of an excavation’s sidewall. A competent person on your jobsite needs to determine how far back from the edge materials, spoil piles, and equipment needs to be placed to prevent a collapse. Don’t assume that two feet away will always be adequate.
Equipment vibrations have varying effects on different types of soil classifications. Class A soil is cohesive and doesn’t crumble. So, it may have little to no impact from vibrations. Class B soil has little or no clay content, and dry soil may crumble easily under vibration. Class C soil is coarse and has the least resistance to vibrations. Your jobsite competent person should be knowledgeable in soil assessment and classification. If not, consider consulting with a registered geotechnical engineer.
Adverse Weather Conditions
Soil conditions can be affected by adverse weather conditions such as wind, temperature, snow, rain, and hail. Surface water from rain and melting snow can saturate the soil, causing a reduction in its load-bearing strength. The temperature on a jobsite can vary from the early morning hours to late in the afternoon. Throughout the day, the temperature difference, especially during the winter months, can create a freezing and thawing cycle, causing the ground to heave.
Wind, sunshine, hail, and other weather conditions can affect soil cohesiveness and increase cave-in risks to an excavation. Check the weather frequently and plan excavation work accordingly to prevent increase exposure to collapse. Weather conditions should be a regular safety topic during your daily planning and safety meetings.
Groundwater
Groundwater is managed with dewatering pumps. A laborer dewaters all excavations before the start of the work shift in the morning. Groundwater can engulf an excavation and cause the sidewalls to become saturated with water. As the excavation is dewatered, the sidewalls can sluff down and cave-in from the soil’s increased weight. As the soil dries, it can become brittle.
Groundwater management should be a proactive activity, not reactive, to prevent the sidewalls from becoming too saturated. Install pumps to automatically remove water from the excavation when it reaches a certain level. Loads should be placed an adequate distance away from the leading edge if the groundwater can rise unexpectedly between shifts or when nobody is onsite.
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