PHMSA's rulemaking roundup Part 2

The EPA definition: “RCRA empty” explained

Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA), a container that once held hazardous waste is only legally “empty” if it meets particular criteria outlined in 40 CFR 261.7. The first standard that must be satisfied is that all material has been removed from the container using normal means such as pouring, pumping, or aspirating. Secondly, no more than 2.5 centimeters or 1 inch of residue remains on the container's bottom or inner lining. Additionally, if the container holds less than 110 gallons, it is empty if no more than 3 percent of the total weight or volume exists. Of course, sometimes special circumstances require further evaluation. For example, a gas cylinder is not empty until the pressure has reduced to atmospheric levels, and acute hazardous waste containers must be triple rinsed with an appropriate solvent or cleaned by another approved method. If these conditions are not met, the container is still legally considered to contain hazardous waste, even if it feels empty.

The OSHA definition: “Empty” under the Hazard Communication Standard

While EPA focuses on environmental disposal and waste management, OSHA’s concern with empty containers centers on worker safety, particularly the potential for exposure to hazardous residues or vapors. Under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1910.1200), a container that previously held hazardous chemicals must retain its original hazard label until it is adequately cleaned or until the employer removes the label following proper decontamination procedures. For example, a drum labeled “Flammable” must keep this label even if it appears empty, as residual material or vapors may still pose a significant ignition or fire risk. Removing such labels prematurely could lead to workplace hazards and violations of OSHA regulations.

How to stay compliant

Employers must first clearly determine which rules apply to them: whether the container held hazardous materials governed by EPA regulations, hazardous chemicals subject to OSHA requirements, or both. Emptying procedures should be followed, including properly draining the container, performing triple-rinsing when required, and thoroughly documenting all decontamination activities. Original hazard labels must be maintained on containers until they are thoroughly cleaned or reconditioned, as removing labels prematurely violates OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard. Additionally, employers should provide employees with training on the proper handling, labeling, and disposal of containers and ensure they fully understand what constitutes an empty container under federal standards. Finally, a detailed record of all rinsing, draining, and cleaning processes should be maintained to demonstrate compliance during EPA or state inspections.

Keys to remember: Employers should educate their teams, enforce proper cleaning procedures, and maintain compliance records to ensure they are staying compliant with “empty” container standards.

Qualified facilities

A qualified facility:

• Has a total aboveground oil storage capacity of 10,000 gallons or less, and
• Hasn’t had over the past three years either:
  • One oil discharge greater than 1,000 gallons, or
  • Two oil discharges greater than 42 gallons each within any 12-month period.

The SPCC rule identifies two types of qualified facilities:

• A Tier I qualified facility has no aboveground oil containers greater than 5,000 gallons.
• A Tier II qualified facility has an individual aboveground oil container greater than 5,000 gallons.

SPCC Tier Tip: EPA provides a fact sheet (Spill Prevention Control and Countermeasure (SPCC) Plan Qualified Facilities Applicability) to help facilities determine eligibility as a qualified facility and (if applicable) which tier applies.

What are the similarities?

Tier I and Tier II qualified facilities are subject to many of the same requirements for SPCC Plans, including basic requirements, certification, and updates to qualification changes.

What are the differences?

The primary difference between Tier I and Tier II facilities is the extent of the SPCC Plan. Additionally, Tier II facilities may employ certain alternative spill control methods.

Qualified facilities, whether Tier I or Tier II, benefit from the ability to self-certify their SPCC Plans. That’s something that can make owners and operators “tier” up with happiness.

Key to remember: Tier I and Tier II qualified facilities share many similarities under the SPCC rule, but knowing where the requirements differ is vital to maintaining compliance.

Proposed legislation

Bipartisan legislation has recently been introduced in the House that would require businesses to provide restroom access to truckers who are loading or delivering cargo at their warehouses, manufacturers, distribution centers, retailers, and ports.

Supported by leading organizations in the trucking industry, the Trucker Bathroom Access Act (H.R. 9592) was introduced on Dec. 15, 2022. The bill requires retailers, warehouses, and other establishments with existing restrooms to provide access to drivers who are loading or delivering cargo. Additionally, operators of ports and marine terminals must provide access for drayage and parking while accessing such restrooms.

This amendment to Title 49 would exempt some employers from the bill including filling and service stations, and restaurants 800-square feet or smaller with restrooms intended for employee use only. The bill doesn’t require employers to construct new restrooms but to give truck drivers the same access as employees or customers.

Your restroom availability affects their health

Commercial truckers and delivery drivers are the lifeline of our supply chain of supplies, products, and consumables. Working tirelessly all hours, during holidays and weekends, and throughout the pandemic, they continue to deliver critical food and emergency supplies to companies everywhere. Employers have the privilege of demonstrating gratitude to truckers and delivery drivers with a positive work environment.

The benefits of allowing truckers and delivery drivers the convenience and safety of readily available, sanitary restroom facilities are plenty. They’re able to rest and reset when necessary, which keeps them and others safer on the roads. Equally important, restroom availability prevents drivers from having to search for available facilities elsewhere, allowing them to keep a timely delivery schedule, limit supply chain delays, and ultimately lower costs for employers and customers.

Keys to remember

The proposed Trucker Bathroom Access Act will require retailers, warehouses, and other establishments with existing restrooms to provide access to truckers and delivery drivers who are loading or delivering cargo. Access to restrooms keeps them refreshed and ready to deliver essential supplies to companies across the country.

Who’s impacted?

The Third Rule impacts entities subject to RCRA’s manifest regulations. This article focuses on the manifest correction rules that apply to these waste handlers:

• Small and large quantity generators,
• Transporters, and
• TSDFs.

Note that the final rule amends post-manifest correction regulations for other entities, such as exporters, that are beyond the scope of this article.

What are the Third Rule changes?

EPA’s final rule maintains most of the post-receipt manifest data corrections process.

What’s the same?

Specifically:

• Any waste handler named on the manifest may voluntarily submit data corrections at any time,
• Waste handlers can make an unlimited number of voluntary corrections,
• Corrections may be applied to an individual record or batch of them, and
• Submissions must include a signature compliant with the Cross-Media Electronic Reporting Rule (CROMERR).

What’s different?

Previously, when EPA or a state regulatory agency requested corrections to data on a manifest, waste handlers weren’t required to make them. The Third Rule now mandates that waste handlers:

• Correct errors on the manifest within 30 days of a corrections request from EPA or a state agency, and
• Make data correction submissions electronically for paper or electronic manifest records.

Post-receipt corrections are made via the Hazardous Waste Electronic Manifest System (e-Manifest) on the RCRA Information (RCRAInfo) system.

The Third Rule also clarifies that receiving facilities (TSDFs) can make corrections only after the manifest is completed (i.e., signed and submitted to the e-Manifest system).

What’s the post-receipt manifest correction process?

Waste handlers submitting voluntary or mandatory post-receipt corrections to hazardous waste manifests must follow the process established at 40 CFR 264.71(l).

Follow this general process on the e-Manifest System:

• Certify that the manifest is complete. It must have the status “Signed-Completed."
• Determine how to submit the corrected data to the e-Manifest system. You can enter the data directly into e-Manifest or upload a file with data corrections to the system.
• Include for each correction submission:
  • The Manifest Tracking Number and date received by the facility associated with the data being corrected,
  • The Item Number(s) of the affected data fields on the manifest form (EPA Form 8700-22), and
  • The previously entered and corrected data.
• Save your corrections. The manifest’s status will change to “Under Correction."
• Re-sign the manifest to certify the corrections. The manifest’s status will change to “Corrected."

Manifest correction FAQs

Check out some top questions and answers about post-receipt manifest corrections.

What manifest information can I correct?

The type of waste handler your facility is determines which items on the manifest you can change for voluntary corrections or must change for mandatory corrections. Typically:

• Generators correct data in Items 1–15;
• Transporters correct data in Items 6–7, 14, and 17; and
• TSDFs correct data in Items 14 and 18–20.

What user role do I need on RCRAInfo to submit manifest corrections?

You must be registered in RCRAInfo as a user with the e-Manifest Certifier or Site Manager role for the facility’s site to submit manifest corrections.

What’s the CROMERR certification?

EPA requires manifest correction submitters to use a CROMERR-compliant electronic signature, which requires a higher level of identity proofing than the Quick Sign signature.

Can I revert to a previous manifest version?

Once the corrected manifest has been signed, you can’t revert it to a previous version. The e-Manifest system does, however, let you view all versions of the manifest.

Can brokers sign corrected manifests?

Although brokers can initiate a manifest correction for generators, they may not sign a corrected manifest unless they (a) operate at the generator’s facility and (b) can sign the manifest as an offeror of the waste shipment.

Key to remember: EPA’s Third Rule updates the process for making data corrections to RCRA hazardous waste manifests.

Brake and annual inspectors

The regulations require that motor carriers only permit qualified personnel to inspect, service, and repair commercial motor vehicle (CMV) brakes and perform annual vehicle inspections.

Brake and annual inspectors must understand and be able to perform their tasks, and this is accomplished through experience, training, or both totaling at least one year. This experience and/or training is often accomplished through outside training programs, commercial garages, apprenticeship programs, and the like.

When the inspector is an employee, the carrier can easily verify the inspector’s background. However, it becomes an issue when the individual is employed by a third party (e.g., a commercial garage). The carrier should reach out to their service provider to ensure only qualified fleet maintenance personnel are working on their CMVs. In fact, motor carriers are instructed in 396.19(b) to retain evidence that a technician meets the annual inspector qualifications — even if the task is outsourced. As best practice, similar evidence should be requested and retained for brake inspectors who are not employees.

D & A service agents

DOT drug and alcohol (D & A) testing is a complex topic, so DOT requires specific training of most service agents. Agents must retain documentation on their employees’ training.

Drug specimen collectors and alcohol testing personnel must:

• Be trained in DOT regulations and collections procedures,
• Demonstrate proficiency through mock tests, and
• Take refresher training once every five years.

If a technician’s actions result in a canceled drug or alcohol test, they must have error-correction training to address the specific mistake.

Substance abuse professionals (SAPs) must:

• Have one of six counseling credentials,
• Participate in training related to safety-sensitive positions,
• Pass a comprehensive exam through an approved organization, and
• Take continuing education courses every three years.

Medical review officers (MROs) must:

• Be a licensed physician;
• Receive training related to collection and lab procedures under Part 40;
• Complete an examination administered by an approved MRO organization; and
• Complete requalification training, including another exam, at least every five years.

Motor carriers should ensure the above personnel are qualified, especially since any mistakes they make are attributed back to the motor carrier. Carriers are allowed to ask for documentation on training of these service providers.

Unlike other key players in DOT testing, consortium/third-party administrators (C/TPAs) have no mandatory training. But this should not deter the motor carrier from asking their C/TPA to provide information on employee training, experience, and continued education.

Key to remember: Even though motor carriers don’t oversee the training of their service providers, the regulations hold the motor carrier responsible for the agent’s knowledge and job performance.

Limitations

• Dangerous Goods Carried by Passengers or Crew (2.3)— Provisions for battery-powered mobility aids have been revised to include reference to the guidance on the end-to-end processes associated with the carriage of mobility aids.

Packing

The following packing instructions have been updated:

• 5.2.0.9 - Added a water capacity limit for non-refillable cylinders containing a flammable gas, limited to a water capacity not exceeding 1.25 L.
• PI 952 - Revised to include reference to "equipment."
• PI 954 - Clarified the rules for marking overpacks containing dry ice. The total net quantity of dry ice in the overpack must be marked on the outside of the overpack.

Packaging specifications and performance tests

• 6.0.3 - Clarified the requirements and formatting for UN specification marks on packages.

Documentation

• 8.1.6.9.2, Step 6 – Added a note to "reinforce that there is no requirement for the type, number and net quantity in inner packagings within the outer packaging of a combination packaging to be shown" on the shipping papers (Shippers Declaration for Dangerous Goods).

Radioactive materials

• 10.8.3.9.1—Added an additional example of the description for the first sequence of information on the Shipper's Declaration to address where a radioactive material has a subsidiary hazard, and the proper shipping name must be supplemented by the technical or chemical name.
• 10.8.6—Added two examples to show how radioactive materials with a subsidiary hazard should be described and how packages in an overpack should be shown.

Appendices

IATA has added a new appendix to the list of appendices in the DGR. Appendix H includes a list of changes IATA will make to the 2025 IATA DGR. IATA added Appendix H so that shippers and carriers have time to prepare for the substantial updates that are coming for 2025. Some of the changes include:

• Adding an exception for data loggers and cargo trackers with installed lithium batteries.
• Modifying the exception for COVID-19 vaccines to now apply to all pharmaceutical products.
• Adding a new classification for sodium ion batteries.
• Updating the list of dangerous goods and special provisions.
• Amending and adding several packing instructions.
• Revising the "lithium battery mark", which will be known as the "battery mark" in the future.

Making sure you are keeping up with these regulatory changes and preparing for future updates is extremely important if you want to avoid costly delays, fines, and lost revenue. Keep your hazmat employees up to speed and inform them of any changes they need to be aware of.

Key to Remember: IATA updates their DGR every year and changes to the 2024 IATA DGR become effective on January 1, 2024.

What is 392.2C?

Section 392.2C is enforcement’s code for “failure to obey traffic control device.” The C stands for control.

The citation appears in the severity table for the Unsafe Driving BASIC (Behavior Analysis and Safety Improvement Category). The violation has been assigned a value of 5 out 10, with 10 being the most severe. The violation is used when calculating both the carrier’s and driver’s Unsafe Driving BASIC scores.

In most instances, the traffic control device is not a signal light or stop or yield sign. Rather, it is the sign that instructs the driver to pull into a weigh station.

Who must pull into a weigh station?

The vehicles that must stop at scales and inspection locations vary from state to state and even from location to location within a state. The “weigh scale ahead” or similar sign should be the driver’s guide.

If the sign reads:

• All vehicles over 16,000 pounds, the driver can safely bypass the scale if under the weight threshold.
• All commercial motor vehicles, the driver should pull in. It is far better to be waived or green lighted through than to be chased down.

Often those who operate commercial vehicles not requiring a commercial driver’s license, such as a large pickup truck or small box truck, mistakenly believe weigh scale inspections are just for larger rigs.

What happens when a driver ignores signage?

If a driver goes past a weigh station without pulling in as directed by a traffic control device, enforcement will pursue and pull over the driver. The officer will then escort the driver back to the weigh station for a roadside inspection.

Even if the driver was honestly confused whether the sign applied to the vehicle, it is too late. And more than likely enforcement’s interest has been piqued. It is highly unlikely the driver will be waived through at this point, and 392.2C will be entered on the roadside inspection report.

Handling violations

CSA’s enforcement model suggests finding the root cause of roadside inspection violations to prevent future occurrences and ultimately improve BASIC scores.

A violation of 392.2C may have one of several root causes, such as:

• Confusion over applicability
• Inattentiveness (missing the sign)
• Running late
• Risky behavior (taking the chance that no one will pursue)
• Concern over other violations discovered once stopped

Whatever the reason, it must be addressed with the driver. Corrective actions range from refresher training to termination. If the driver was trying to avoid enforcement for other reasons (drugs, alcohol, over HOS limits), these other violations need to be addressed accordingly.

Key to remember: Failing to obey a traffic control device will be used in calculation of the CSA Unsafe Driving BASIC scores. Motor carriers should address the root cause of the violation so it does not recur.

Key changes

Updates to classifications and exceptions include:

• The term "metal powders" now aligns with the UN classification.
• List of Category A pathogens now include monkey pox virus as Category A when in culture form only. The World Health Organization now references monkey pox virus as "mpox".
• Exception for COVID-19 vaccines has been expanded to cover all pharmaceutical products packed in a form ready to be administered. This also applies to those items in clinical trials.

New entries to the List of Dangerous Goods include:

• UN0514, Fire suppressant dispersing devices, Division 1.4S.
• UN3559, Fire suppressant dispersing devices, Class 9.
• UN3554, Gallium contained in manufactured articles.
• UN355, Sodium ion batteries.
• UN3552, Sodium ion batteries contained in equipment.
• UN3552, Sodium ion batteries packed in equipment.
• UN3556, Vehicle, lithium ion battery powered,
• UN3557, Vehicle, lithium metal battery powered.
• UN3558, Vehicle, sodium ion battery powered.

Changes and additions to special provisions include:

• A40: Expands the application of liquid desensitized explosives in Class 3.
• A69: Includes reference to gallium.
• A144: Clarifies the appropriate aircraft limitation is "passenger and cargo aircraft" when the special provision is applied.
• A228: Added to clarify the classification differences between sodium ion cells and batteries with an organic electrolyte and those batteries with an aqueous alkali electrolyte.
• A232: Added to distinguish between the classification of fire suppressant dispersing devices between Division 1.4S and Class 9.

Packing instructions with changes include:

• 5.2.0.8: Amended to enhance the protection of valves on cylinders and closed cryogenic receptacles, including references to design standards for shrouds, permanent protective attachments, and valves for non-refillable cylinders.
• PI 961: Now includes UN 3559, Fire suppressant dispersing devices, ensuring they are packed safely for transport.

Finally, Appendix A includes several changes to the defined terms in the Glossary, ensuring clarity and up-to-date terminology.

The updates listed above are not the only changes to the 2025 IATA DGR. However, they do show IATA's commitment to enhancing safety and efficiency in the transport of dangerous goods. Staying informed and compliant with these regulations will ensure smooth and secure operations in 2025.

Key to remember: If you are shipping dangerous goods by air, make sure you are using the appropriate IATA DGR, so you can stay in compliance with changing requirements.

What is that little orange book for?

Many shippers and transporters of hazardous materials are familiar with the small orange Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG). Most associate the ERG with compliance with the Hazardous Materials Regulations (49 CFR), using it to provide emergency response information for a hazardous materials shipment. This may be surprising, but that is not why the ERG was created.

Original use for the ERG

The Emergency Response Guidebook was originally developed by the U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT), Transport Canada, and the Secretariat of Transport and Communications of Mexico for use by police, firefighters, and other emergency personnel who are the first to arrive at the scene of a transportation incident involving hazardous materials/dangerous goods. The ERG helps first responders quickly identify the hazard(s) of the materials and protect themselves and the general public during the initial response phase of an incident.

The “initial response phase” is that period following the first responders’ arrival at the scene of an incident, during which the presence and/or identification of hazardous materials is confirmed, protective actions and area securement are initiated, and assistance of qualified personnel is requested.

The DOT prints and distributes copies of the ERG to emergency responders throughout the United States. The goal is to have an ERG available to every emergency responder in the United States. Responders are familiar with the ERG because the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulations require that they be trained on the use of the ERG.

Another use for the ERG

To increase the likelihood that emergency response information will be available to first responders at the scene of a hazardous materials incident, the Hazardous Materials Regulations require that emergency response information accompany most shipments of hazardous materials. Emergency response information is not required for hazardous materials that do not require shipping papers or are classified as an Limited Quantity.

The emergency response information can be provided in a variety of ways:

• It can be entered on the hazmat shipping papers; or
• It can be provided in another document, other than the shipping paper, that includes the basic description (and technical name if appropriate) of the hazardous material. A Safety Data Sheet is an example of this type of document; or
• It can be provided in a separate document, other than the shipping paper, that cross-references the description of the hazardous material on the shipping paper with the emergency response information contained in the document. The ERG is an example of this type of document.

Carriers that transport hazardous materials must maintain the emergency response information the same as they do shipping papers. The emergency response information must be readily available to, and recognizable by, authorities in the event of an incident or inspection.

Although not the original intended use for the ERG, keeping an ERG with the hazmat shipping papers is an easy way to comply with the emergency response information requirements in the Hazardous Materials Regulations. Many carriers play it safe and carry an ERG in their vehicles to cover any hazmat load/situation that they may encounter.

Key to remember

The ERG was originally created to help first responders protect themselves and the public during a hazardous materials incident. The ERG can also be used to provide emergency response information that is required for most hazardous materials shipments.

The basics of logging exemptions

To be able to use this logging exemption in 395.1(e)(1), the driver must:

• Stay within 150 air-miles of the work reporting location for the day (draw a 150 air-mile radius circle around the work reporting location for the day — the driver must stay within this circle),
• Be back to — and released from — the work reporting location for his/her 8- or 10-hour break within 14 hours, and
• Include the starting and ending times for the day and the total hours on duty on the time record for the day.

The company must retain the time record and have it available for inspection for six months.

What if the driver goes too far or works too many hours?

If the driver cannot meet the terms of the exemption (he or she goes too far or works too many hours), the driver must complete a regular driver’s log for the day as soon as the exemption no longer applies.

If the driver has had to complete a log 8 or fewer days out of the last 30 days, the driver can use a paper log for the day. If the driver had to complete a log more than 8 days out of the last 30 days, the driver needs to use an electronic log for the day (unless one of the ELD exemptions applies, such as operating a vehicle older than model year 2000).

30-minute break exemption

When a property-carrying driver is operating under the 150 air-mile exemption, the driver is also exempt from having to take the required 30-minute break (see 395.3(a)(3)(ii)).

If the driver began the day as a 150 air-mile driver and has driven more than 8 consecutive hours without a break, and something unexpected happens and the driver can no longer use the 150 air-mile exemption, the driver must stop and immediately take the 30-minute break as well as start logging. If the driver went outside of the 150 air-mile area before the driver had 8 hours of driving without a break from driving, the driver would be expected to take the break at the appropriate time.

Common myths

Here are some of the common myths and misunderstandings about the 150 air-mile exemption:

• The driver must have the time records in the vehicle. Myth. The driver simply needs to explain to an officer during a roadside inspection that he/she does not have logs due to operating under the 150 air-mile exemption and that the required time records are back at the carrier’s office (just telling the officer, “I don’t have any logs” will lead to a violation, so the driver needs to know to provide the full explanation).
• The driver must log the previous seven days if he/she had been using this exemption and suddenly can’t. Myth. If the driver cannot use the exemption on one particular day, that is the only day the driver must use a regular log (either paper or electronic).
• Passenger-carrying drivers and drivers hauling hazardous materials cannot use this exemption. Myth. There are no restrictions on the use of this exemption, so any commercial driver can use it.
• A driver that crosses state lines cannot use this exemption. Myth. As this exemption appears in the Federal Motor Carrier Administration (FMCSA) regulations, it can be used by interstate drivers.
• Only drivers that operate out of a “company terminal” can use the 150 air-mile exemption. Myth. As long as the driver makes it back to the work reporting location for the day within the appropriate number of hours, the driver can use the exemption.
• Drivers that move from one jobsite to another every few weeks cannot use this exemption. Myth. If a driver that normally uses this exemption switches work reporting locations, the day the driver switches work reporting locations is the only day the driver cannot use the exemption.
• Drivers covered by this exemption are also exempt from the driver qualification (licensing and medical cards), driving, and vehicle inspection requirements. Myth. The only rules the driver is exempt from are the logging requirement in 395.8 and the 30-minute break requirement in 395.3.
• The driver cannot drive more than 150 miles for the day. Myth. The driver can drive as many miles as he/she wants to or needs to, as long as the driver stays within the 150 air-mile radius circle and gets back to the work reporting location within the appropriate number of hours.
• If a 150 air-mile driver gets into a vehicle with an ELD, the driver must use it. Myth. The carrier can have the driver log in and have the driver entered into the system as an “exempt driver,” or the carrier can request that the driver not log into the device and then attach a comment to the unassigned driving time generated by the driver’s movements. The comment would need to explain that the driver using the vehicle was a 150 air-mile driver who submitted a time record. It is up to the carrier to decide which option to use. If stopped for a roadside inspection, the driver will need to be able to explain to the inspector that he/she is an exempt driver using the 150 air-mile exemption, so using the electronic log is not required.

What’s different with the ‘150 air-mile non-CDL property-carrying drivers’

The 150 air-mile exemption at 395.1(e)(2) only applies to drivers that: Operate property-carrying vehicles that do not require a CDL to operate, and Stay within the 150 air-miles of their work reporting location.

If the driver stays within the 150 air-mile radius of the work reporting location, and returns to the work reporting location within 14 hours on 5 of the last 7 days, and 16 hours on 2 of the last seven days, the driver is allowed to use a time record in place of a log.

If the driver does not meet the terms of the exception, the driver will need to complete a log for the day. If the driver had to log more than 8 days out of the last 30 days, the driver will need to use an electronic log for the day. All of the other issues discussed above would apply to these drivers as well.

Managing the use

If you have drivers that use these exemptions, you will need to check time records to make sure they are complying with the appropriate time limits. You will also need to check movement records to verify that the drivers using these exemptions are staying within the mandated area (within 150 air-miles of the work reporting location for the day).

If a driver is over the hours limit, or has gone too far, you need to verify that the submitted a log for the day, either paper or electronic, depending on how many days the driver had to log out of the previous 30 days.

Verifying compliance is important

During an audit, if it is discovered that your drivers are using these exemptions incorrectly, you will be cited for not having drivers’ logs when required. Each day this occurred will be another violation, so the fine could be rather large if you are not managing the use of these exemptions!

The intent of the standard

OSHA’s powered industrial truck (PIT) standard (29 CFR 1910.178) is intended to ensure the safe use of fork trucks, tractors, platform lift trucks, motorized hand trucks, and other specialized industrial trucks powered by electric motors or internal combustion engines. The standard outlines requirements for operational permits and certification.

And, though not specified in the standard itself, PIT operators must be at least 18 years old per federal child labor regulations.

License and certification Q&A

The OSHA PIT standard clearly defines requirements for training and certification. However, some licensing and certification information isn’t as clear. Here are some clarifications:

Q: Who can train, evaluate, and certify PIT operators?

A: OSHA requires in 1910.178(l)(2)(iii) that, “All operator training and evaluation shall be conducted by persons who have the knowledge, training, and experience to train powered industrial truck operators and evaluate their competence.” The OSHA standard doesn’t further define this requirement or set any specific or additional certifications.

Q: Does OSHA require PIT operators to have a valid driver's license?

A: Federal OSHA has no requirement that a forklift operator has a valid motor vehicle driver's license. Some states are more stringent, so check your local and state requirements to confirm.

Q: Does OSHA have regulations that impact an employee’s ability to operate PITs if they’ve received a DUI or suspended license?

A: Because OSHA doesn't require a valid motor vehicle driver's license, the status of that license doesn’t impact PIT operator permitting. Individual states or the employer may have policies that dictate otherwise.

Q: Are PIT drivers required to have their license on them when they are working?

A: Federal OSHA doesn’t require PIT operators to have a license or permit. However, some states such as Michigan do require this. Typically, in states that require a permit or license, the license must be “readily available.” Companies have the option to require the permit or license be carried with the operator.

Q: Are operators required to be trained on each manufacture of PIT model?

A: A June 15, 1999, OSHA letter of interpretation (LOI) clarifies that operators are to be trained and evaluated in the safe operation for the type of truck they’ll be assigned. Operators wouldn’t need additional training for same truck types but would need additional training when truck- or workplace-related training topics are different.

Q: Do PIT operators need to be recertified if they move from one state to another with the same company?

A: In an LOI dated October 1, 1999, OSHA states, "As long as the employer has a reasonable basis to believe that the third-party trainer is qualified and has a program that meets the requirements of the standard, it can rely on that trainer to conduct the training and evaluation of employees and can certify that these employees have been trained. However, the employer may need to provide additional training on site-specific or truck-specific matters." This shouldn’t require retraining for the same type of forklift as already certified; however, workplace conditions or other factors of the new work location may require training for forklift operation in the other state(s).

Operator Impairments

In addition to being properly trained and evaluated, OSHA expects employers to ensure physical capabilities. OSHA references the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Standard B56.1-1969. Section 6 clarifies that, “Operators of powered industrial trucks shall be physically qualified. An examination should be made on an annual basis and include such things as field of vision, hearing, depth perception, and reaction timing."

Employers should consider OSHA PIT regulations and the General Duty Clause, ANSI standards, and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requirements when evaluating physical qualifications. In short, if a worker demonstrates the visual, auditory, and mental ability to safely operate PITs, he or she is permitted to operate them.

Keys to Remember

OSHA requires employers ensure the safe use of forklifts and other powered industrial vehicles. Employers must ensure operators have the knowledge, skills, and physical ability to safely operate PITs.

What would you do?

So, if Joe Employee were to ask to bring in his emotional support squirrel, what do you do?

Treat the request as you would any accommodation request. You would do the same if Joe asked to bring in a service dog. Look at the particulars of the situation, including the employee’s job, the work environment, and so forth. Talk to the employee. This is all part of the ADA’s interactive process.

Assuming it’s possible to modify the no-animal policy, you may (but are not required to) ask for medical documentation if the disability and need for accommodation are not obvious or already verified. You have to consider only those accommodations that are needed because of a disability. Documentation might include a detailed description of how the animal would help the employee in performing job tasks and how the animal is trained to behave in the workplace.

Once the need for accommodation is established, the next step is to talk with the employee about whether the animal is trained to be in a work environment and if it will be under the employee’s control at all times. You do not have to provide any accommodation that poses an undue hardship. One factor in determining undue hardship is whether the accommodation will be unduly disruptive to other employees or to the ability to conduct business.

Finally, possibly the best way to determine whether to permit the employee to bring an animal to work is to allow it on a trial basis and see if it works. You might want to make a written agreement with the employee that there will be a trial period, how long it will last, and what factors might end the trial period early. If, for example, the animal shows any sign of aggression or if the employee cannot keep the animal quiet or under control, you will immediately end the trial period and deny the request.

If you do not have a no-animal policy and allow other employees to bring in animals, then you should allow employees with disabilities to bring in animals without going through the accommodation process.

Counting the days

Whether employers count a holiday as FMLA leave will depend on whether the employee is taking leave in full weeks, or on an intermittent or reduced schedule basis.

If an employee is taking FMLA leave continuously, the fact that the holiday occurs within that week has no effect; employers would count the entire week as FMLA leave.

If, however, an employee is using FMLA leave intermittently or on a reduced schedule (in small chunks), employers don’t count the holiday as FMLA leave unless the employee was otherwise scheduled to work on the holiday and didn’t because of an FMLA-qualifying reason.

Putting it into practice

If, for example, Jo Employee will be on FMLA leave for the first full three weeks of July, the employer would count the entire week during which Independence Day falls as FMLA leave.

If, on the other hand, Jo is on FMLA leave only on the Monday and Tuesday before Independence Day, works Wednesday, and is not scheduled to work Friday of that week, the employer would count only Monday and Tuesday as FMLA leave.

If Jo also needed Friday off that week for an FMLA-qualifying reason, and were scheduled to work on that day, the employer would also count Friday as FMLA leave.

Keeping the records straight

Employers must keep records of the dates on which employees take FMLA leave. When employees take small chunks of FMLA leave, employers must record the minutes or hours of leave employees take. Employers must identify the leave as FMLA leave in the records. They may not include leave required under state law or an employer plan that isn’t also covered by FMLA.

Employers can find such information from time records, requests for leave, etc., making it beneficial, then, to know how to track FMLA leave when a holiday is involved.

Happy Independence Day!

Key to remember: Whether employers should count time off as FMLA leave around a holiday will depend upon some specifics, such as whether the employee takes leave in full weeks or not.

FMLA certification basics

Employers aren’t required to use certifications, but if they do, the U.S. Department of Labor (DOL) has five different certification forms to use for various FMLA leave situations.

The forms are as follows:

1. Certification of Health Care Provider for Employee's Serious Health Condition,
2. Certification of Health Care Provider for Family Member's Serious Health Condition,
3. Certification of Qualifying Exigency for Military Family Leave,
4. Certification for Serious Injury or Illness of a Current Servicemember for Military Family Leave, and
5. Certification for Serious Injury or Illness of a Veteran for Military Family Leave.

Let’s focus on the first two, as these are the most common ones HR administrators use.

Who can fill out an FMLA certification?

The FMLA regulations describe the person who has the authority to fill out a certification as a “health care provider.” The good news is, the regulations include a lengthy list of medical professionals who fit this role.

Under the FMLA, a health care provider includes:

• A doctor of medicine or osteopathy,
• A podiatrist,
• A dentist,
• A clinical psychologist,
• An optometrist,
• A chiropractor (limited to manual manipulation of the spine as demonstrated by X-ray),
• A nurse practitioner,
• A nurse midwife,
• A clinical social worker,
• A physician assistant,
• A Christian Science practitioner, and
• Any health care provider from whom the employer or the employer's group health plan's benefits manager will accept a medical certification to substantiate a claim for benefits.

To be qualified to fill out FMLA forms, medical professionals must be authorized to practice in the state and perform within the scope of their practice. This means that the provider must be authorized to diagnose and treat physical or mental health conditions.

What about doctors in a foreign country?

If an employee or an employee's family member is visiting another country, or a family member resides in another country, and a serious health condition develops, the employer must accept a medical certification from a health care provider who practices in that country. This includes second and third opinions.

If a medical certification from a foreign health care provider is not in English, the employee may be required to provide a written translation of the certification.

Key to remember: The FMLA regulations spell out which medical professionals can fill out certification forms.

#1 Start here

First, OSHA requires that all operators must be trained prior to being allowed to operate forklifts. And the same thing goes for pallet trucks, order pickers, and stand-up units…. Any powered type of material handling equipment requires training.

But what does training entail? Well, the OSHA regulations are very specific. All operators must receive a combination of training. Training must consist of formal training, which is a lecture, discussion, interactive computer learning, video tape, written material, and so on.

They must also receive practical training, which means demonstrations performed by the trainer and practical exercises performed by the trainee.

And the third component is that operators must receive a performance evaluation. So, they must operate the equipment and be observed and evaluated before being considered trained per the OSHA standard.

Usually, you’ll introduce the concepts during the classroom portion of training, the more informational aspects, such as the OSHA requirements. Then you’ll use the practical part of training to familiarize trainees with controls, talk about load handling, and so on. With the practical part, it’s usually best to ramp up the training, meaning start with simple skills and then build on those.

#2 Train on these topics

Aside from requirements for how to do the training, OSHA gives us a detailed list of topics to cover during the training.

The main categories are truck-related and workplace-related topics. And remember that OSHA does require you to include information on OSHA’s forklift standard as part of the training program. This requirement can be easy to overlook, but a good way to approach it is in the classroom portion of the program.

Keep in mind that if a topic doesn’t apply to your trucks or workplace, you don’t have to train on it. For example, if you don’t have any ramps or hazardous (classified) locations in your facility, your forklift operators don’t need training on these topics.

Truck-related topics include the following:

• Operation instruction, warnings
• Differences between forklift and automobile
• Controls, instrumentation
• Engine, motor operation
• Steering
• Visibility, restrictions
• Fork, attachment operation
• Capacity
• Stability
• Inspection, maintenance
• Refueling, recharging
• Operating limitations
• Operator’s manual instructions, precautions

Workplace-related topics are examples like these:

• Surfaces
• Load composition
• Load handling
• Pedestrians
• Narrow, restricted areas
• Hazardous (classified) locations
• Ramps
• Poor ventilation
• Other hazards

#3 Determine success

The trainees must successfully complete the formal and practical instruction, but how you determine success is up to you. For the classroom portion, you could give a written or oral test or otherwise evaluate the trainees’ knowledge. For the practical training, the trainee must be able to safely perform all the operations used on the job.

#4 End here

An evaluation of the operator’s performance in the workplace must be conducted at the time of initial training. And an evaluation is required to determine the effectiveness of any refresher training.

Also, you must conduct an evaluation at least every three years. This means that at least once every three years every operator must be observed while they operate in the workplace under actual workplace conditions. During the evaluation, the operator must also be able to answer pertinent questions to demonstrate they have the knowledge to operate the forklift safely.

A key point to note here, this evaluation must be more than just a written or verbal test. The employer must observe the operator in action performing all typical tasks related to running the forklift. And, going back to where we started, the evaluation must be conducted by someone who has the knowledge, training, and experience to evaluate the truck operator’s competence.

Document the evaluation — this means placing a record in your training file that includes the name of the operator, the date of the training, the date of the evaluation, and the identity of the person(s) performing the training or evaluation.

Action item

This may be a good time for you to review your options for training forklift operators to ensure they’re meeting these guidelines. And, it’s always a great idea to have all your training procedures in written format for consistency.

Key to remember

Training forklift operators is an OSHA requirement. Follow this step-by-step guide and you can do it in-house.

Combustible dust explosion

One night in May 2017, workers at a Wisconsin dry corn milling facility smelled smoke in the mill. While investigating the smoke, several heard an explosion and saw fire coming from piping on mill equipment. The workers scrambled to evacuate as the fire spread through the equipment and interconnected dust collection systems. Dust collection equipment exploded, and secondary explosions subsequently occurred throughout the facility.

The CSB determined the cause of the dust explosions was the ignition of combustible corn dust inside process equipment. This transitioned to multiple explosions. The board’s report determined that OSHA regulations for combustible dust operations are insufficient. Therefore, the report recommends that the agency publish a comprehensive regulation on combustible dust with the following elements:

• Hazard recognition,
• Dust hazard analysis,
• Management of change,
• Incident investigation,
• Engineering controls,
• Building design,
• Fugitive dust management,
• Operating procedures,
• Process safety information,
• Investigation report,
• External audit management,
• Worker training,
• Emergency response, and
• Personal protective equipment (PPE).

The report also highlights that emergency plans need to instruct workers when and how to trigger evacuations. The workers spent at least 30 minutes trying to locate the source of smoke, but no one attempted to shut down the mill or evacuate until they observed fire.

Asphyxiating gas release

In January 2021, liquid nitrogen overflowed from a freezer located inside a food plant in Georgia. The release happened while maintenance workers were troubleshooting issues with the freezer. Once released, the liquid nitrogen vaporized filling the room and killing the two workers. An hour later another worker spotted a five-foot vapor cloud filling the room and notified management. During an evacuation, other workers investigated the room or attempted rescue. Unfortunately, four more workers were killed, and three others were injured by asphyxiation.

The CSB’s report concluded that a tube was bent during maintenance in the freezer room. The board also said that the severity of the incident was worsened by the company’s inadequate emergency preparedness. The final CSB report emphasizes five safety issues:

• Single point of failure,
• Atmospheric monitoring and alarm systems,
• Emergency preparedness and response,
• Process safety management, and
• Product stewardship.

However, the report also suggests that OSHA issue a new regulation on cryogenic asphyxiants that covers:

• Design, construction, and installation of equipment;
• Atmospheric monitoring for indoor equipment;
• Emergency shutdown;
• Worker training;
• Emergency planning;
• Process hazard analysis;
• Management of change; and
• Other process safety elements.

Flammable vapor explosion

In April 2021, a mixture of flammable naphtha solvent vapors and resin liquid escaped through the seal of a closed manway of an operating kettle. This created a flammable vapor cloud that spread throughout the Ohio facility. Within minutes the vapor cloud found an ignition source, causing a huge explosion and a fire that burned for roughly 11 hours. The explosion shook nearby homes and caused an estimated $90 million in damage to the site. One employee was killed and eight others transported to area hospitals with third-degree burns and crushed or broken bones.

The latest CSB report highlights three safety issues:

• Mechanical integrity of low-pressure vessels,
• A hierarchy of controls, and
• Emergency preparedness training.

On the night of the incident, evacuation alarms and worker training specific to the hazards of the chemicals present in the resin manufacturing area could have prevented casualties. These precautions were missing in the incident, the board explains.

The CSB report warns that effective emergency preparedness is crucial in the event of a flammable vapor cloud release. This should, among other things, include:

Two more CSB reports anticipated

Key to remember

Packed with safety recommendations, three chemical incident investigation reports from the CSB urge OSHA to issue two new regulations.

What are the issues?

• Weather conditions.
• Load capacity.

What did Jack do right?

• Checked the load chart to confirm rated load capacity.
• Told Philip that the lift would be unsafe and refused to do it.

What did Philip do wrong?

• Didn’t understand the importance of the load chart, even though he’s the foreman for the job.
• Failed to select the proper crane to perform the lift.
• Tried to pressure Jack into making the lift.

What do you think should happen next?

• If the lift is to be made, they need to get a crane that can handle it safely.
• Philip should receive training on overhead crane handling requirements and crane load charts.
• Jack should be commended for not making the lift.

Key to remember

Per OSHA, crane operators have the authority to stop operation whenever there is a safety concern. At 29 CFR 1926.1418 it states, “… the operator must have the authority to stop and refuse to handle loads until a qualified person has determined that safety has been assured.”

What is “chip guarding”?

“Effective chip guarding” means any method or equipment which will prevent a chip or particle (of whatever size) from being blown into the eyes or unbroken skin of the operator or other workers.

Effective chip guarding may be separate from the air nozzle as in the case where screens or barriers are used. The use of protective cone air nozzles are acceptable in general for protection of the operator, but barriers, baffles or screens may be required to protect other workers if they are exposed to flying chips or particles.

What about the psi requirement?

The regulation requires the psi at the nozzle to be less than 30 when using compressed air for cleaning.

However, OSHA has said in interpretive guidance that the use of compressed air for cleaning purposes at pressures at or greater than 30 psi is permissible if the outlet or source is fitted with a relief device or air ports that drop the pressure to less than 30 psi if the flow is dead-ended.

What about cleaning clothing/bodies?

While the regulation does not specifically address the issue, in a letter of interpretation OSHA said that employers should not allow employees to use compressed air for cleaning themselves or their clothing in general industry situations. The eyes and other body parts, such as the respiratory system, may be damaged as the result of inadequate personal protective equipment, lack of chip guards, and/or uncontrolled release of compressed air.

The dangers

There are numerous dangers of improperly using compressed air:

• Embolism: If compressed air enters the bloodstream through a body opening or skin break, it can create an embolism (air bubble) that can be life threatening.
• Eye damage: Particles that are being blown can “blow back” and strike the eyes. The air itself can also cause injury if it is pointed toward the eyes.
• Hearing loss: Some compressed air equipment can be loud enough to damage hearing. Always wear proper PPE.
• Combustible dust: If compressed air is used to blow certain dusts, it can create a suspension in the air that could ignite if there is an ignition source.
• Respiratory: Particles or air can enter the respiratory system, posing deadly hazards.
• Whips: If not properly secured, hoses can whip and cause severe injury.

Workers must be trained that even extremely low pressures, such as 5 or 10 psi, can still cause severe damage if pointed toward the body, particularly the mouth, eyes, ears, or open areas in the skin.

Employers should train employees on the dangers of compressed air, and ensure the equipment is equipped with the necessary safety features and is properly maintained.

Supervisors should watch for improper use, particularly horseplay, and initiate corrective action. In addition, for many applications, a broom or shop vacuum may be just as effective at cleaning, and much safer. Compressed air may seem harmless, but if strict safeguards and practices are not utilized it can be deadly.

Other safety tips

Tornado safety involves three phases: Preparing in advance, Staying safe during the storm, and Staying safe after the storm.

Employees should prepare a plan and an emergency kit, monitor weather conditions during thunderstorms, and know the best places to shelter wherever they work.

Employers should prepare a business continuity plan for dealing with the aftermath, from cleaning up the site to resuming business operations.

During a tornado warning, employees should remain in a shelter until given an all-clear signal. At a fixed worksite, this may come from an employer announcement. At other locations, employees may need to monitor conditions on their phone or radio.

After the storm, employees may need a way to communicate if they are trapped or injured. They should also watch for hazards such as downed power lines, gas leaks, building damage, or debris.

Key to remember: Tornadoes can happen at any time, but Spring is most active, and employers should prepare to protect workers.