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2021-11-29T06:00:00Z
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NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyDriver qualificationsMedical waivers and exemptions - Motor CarrierDriver qualification and hiringFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishTransportationUSA
FMCSA extends COVID-19 emergency exemption and waivers
2021-11-29T06:00:00Z
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) has once again extended some emergency waivers and exemptions enacted in response to the COVID-19 pandemic.
The agency’s Emergency Declaration as well as its licensing and medical-card waivers were due to expire on November 31, 2021. The continuing impact of COVID-19 on supply chains and state licensing agencies led the agency to extend the exemption and waivers yet again, through February 28, 2022.
Emergency declaration
In place since March 2020, the emergency exemption provides hours-of-service relief to qualifying motor carriers supporting pandemic-relief efforts. As before, the exemption applies to the transportation of a limited list of commodities, including:
- Livestock and livestock feed;
- Medical and sanitation supplies, vaccines, and related products and equipment for the testing, diagnosis and treatment of COVID-19, and for community safety, sanitation, and prevention of community transmission of COVID-19;
- Food, paper products, and other groceries for emergency restocking of distribution centers or stores;
- Gasoline, diesel, jet fuel, and ethyl alcohol; and
- Supplies to assist individuals impacted by the consequences of the COVID-19 pandemic (e.g., building materials for individuals displaced or otherwise impacted as a result of the emergency).
The latest extension continues to offer relief from the hours-of-service limits in 49 CFR 395.3. This means eligible drivers are not required to have a minimum amount of rest and may drive after the normal 11-hour driving limit, 14-hour duty limit, and/or 60/70-hour weekly limit. They must be in compliance, however, with all other federal safety requirements related to driver qualification, vehicle inspections and maintenance, drug and alcohol testing, licensing, cargo securement, etc. They also must log their time as they normally would, whether using paper logs, electronic logs, or short-haul time records.
Reporting requirement remains
Motor carriers must continue to report their usage of the emergency exemption to the FMCSA. Specifically, motor carriers that use the exemption must log in to their FMCSA Portal account within five days after the end of each month to report their use of the exemption. Carriers are to access the “Emergency Declaration Reporting” tool under the “Available FMCSA Systems” section on the Portal website.
Licensing waiver
Drivers having trouble updating their commercial licenses due to the pandemic have more time to renew their credentials.
Under the licensing waiver, states have the option to extend the validity of CDLs and CLPs that expired on or after March 1, 2020, until February 28, 2022.
The licensing waiver is not binding on the states, so drivers should verify that their state is honoring it.
Medical-card waiver
Under the extended medical-card waiver, a driver can qualify for an extension on an expiring medical certificate if:
- His or her existing medical card expired on or after September 1, 2021;
- The existing medical card was issued for at least 90 days;
- The driver has not been diagnosed with a disqualifying medical condition since the previous medical exam; and
- The driver carries a copy of his or her expired medical certificate and any required variance.
Reporting crashes
If a driver takes advantage of the licensing or medical-card waiver and is involved in a DOT-recordable crash, the motor carrier must notify the FMCSA by email within five days.
The latest exemption declaration and waivers go into effect at 12:00 A.M. (ET), December 1, 2021, and will remain in effect until 11:59 P.M. (ET), February 28, 2022, unless modified or revoked sooner.

NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyDriver qualificationsMedical waivers and exemptions - Motor CarrierDriver qualification and hiringFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishTransportationUSA
FMCSA extends COVID-19 emergency exemption and waivers
2021-11-29T06:00:00Z
Written by
Mark Schedler
Mark Schedler
MBA - University of Wisconsin at Oshkosh, BS Finance - University of South Alabama
Senior editor and subject matter expert since 2016. Supports driver qualification, vehicle safety technology, and passenger-carrier regulations. Previously spent 25 years in truckload operations.
The Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA) has once again extended some emergency waivers and exemptions enacted in response to the COVID-19 pandemic.
The agency’s Emergency Declaration as well as its licensing and medical-card waivers were due to expire on November 31, 2021. The continuing impact of COVID-19 on supply chains and state licensing agencies led the agency to extend the exemption and waivers yet again, through February 28, 2022.
Emergency declaration
In place since March 2020, the emergency exemption provides hours-of-service relief to qualifying motor carriers supporting pandemic-relief efforts. As before, the exemption applies to the transportation of a limited list of commodities, including:
- Livestock and livestock feed;
- Medical and sanitation supplies, vaccines, and related products and equipment for the testing, diagnosis and treatment of COVID-19, and for community safety, sanitation, and prevention of community transmission of COVID-19;
- Food, paper products, and other groceries for emergency restocking of distribution centers or stores;
- Gasoline, diesel, jet fuel, and ethyl alcohol; and
- Supplies to assist individuals impacted by the consequences of the COVID-19 pandemic (e.g., building materials for individuals displaced or otherwise impacted as a result of the emergency).
The latest extension continues to offer relief from the hours-of-service limits in 49 CFR 395.3. This means eligible drivers are not required to have a minimum amount of rest and may drive after the normal 11-hour driving limit, 14-hour duty limit, and/or 60/70-hour weekly limit. They must be in compliance, however, with all other federal safety requirements related to driver qualification, vehicle inspections and maintenance, drug and alcohol testing, licensing, cargo securement, etc. They also must log their time as they normally would, whether using paper logs, electronic logs, or short-haul time records.
Reporting requirement remains
Motor carriers must continue to report their usage of the emergency exemption to the FMCSA. Specifically, motor carriers that use the exemption must log in to their FMCSA Portal account within five days after the end of each month to report their use of the exemption. Carriers are to access the “Emergency Declaration Reporting” tool under the “Available FMCSA Systems” section on the Portal website.
Licensing waiver
Drivers having trouble updating their commercial licenses due to the pandemic have more time to renew their credentials.
Under the licensing waiver, states have the option to extend the validity of CDLs and CLPs that expired on or after March 1, 2020, until February 28, 2022.
The licensing waiver is not binding on the states, so drivers should verify that their state is honoring it.
Medical-card waiver
Under the extended medical-card waiver, a driver can qualify for an extension on an expiring medical certificate if:
- His or her existing medical card expired on or after September 1, 2021;
- The existing medical card was issued for at least 90 days;
- The driver has not been diagnosed with a disqualifying medical condition since the previous medical exam; and
- The driver carries a copy of his or her expired medical certificate and any required variance.
Reporting crashes
If a driver takes advantage of the licensing or medical-card waiver and is involved in a DOT-recordable crash, the motor carrier must notify the FMCSA by email within five days.
The latest exemption declaration and waivers go into effect at 12:00 A.M. (ET), December 1, 2021, and will remain in effect until 11:59 P.M. (ET), February 28, 2022, unless modified or revoked sooner.
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Most Recent Highlights In Environmental
NewsAir QualityIndustry NewsStationary Emission SourcesEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)Hazardous Air PollutantsCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleFocus AreaEnglishAir PermittingAir ProgramsAir ProgramsUSA
2026-05-14T05:00:00Z
MACT emission standards: 7 questions answered
Standards are more than just suggestions when it comes to environmental regulations; they define the minimum level of performance that must be achieved and, as a result, determine who complies and who doesn’t. For industrial facilities that release air toxics, emission standards are foundational to compliance.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) controls the release of more than 180 air toxics, known as hazardous air pollutants (HAPs), from industrial sources (such as factories and refineries) through the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) program. For major sources, EPA develops maximum achievable control technology (MACT) standards to reduce HAP emissions.
Understanding the basics of MACT standards can help you navigate the requirements specific to your facility. Here’s what you need to know.
What’s a MACT standard?
A MACT standard refers to the specific technology-based requirements set by EPA to control HAP emissions from major sources in a specific industrial source category. The agency bases the standards on the emission levels already being achieved with existing control technologies by the best-controlled and lowest-emitting facilities in an industry.
What’s a MACT floor?
MACT floors are the minimum control levels that regulated facilities must meet. EPA sets MACT floors differently for new and existing facilities:
- The MACT floors for new facilities must be at least as stringent as the emission control achieved by the best-controlled similar source.
- The MACT floors for existing facilities (which may be less stringent than the floors for new sources) have to be at least as strict as the average emission limitation achieved by either:
- The top-performing 12 percent of sources in a category or subcategory with 30 or more sources, or
- The top-performing 5 sources in a category or subcategory with fewer than 30 sources.
Keep in mind that EPA may establish requirements stricter than the MACT floor, known as “beyond-the-floor” standards.
What types of facilities are subject to MACT standards?
MACT standards generally apply to major sources of HAP emissions. A facility is considered a major source if it emits or has the potential to emit:
- 10 tons per year (tpy) of any one HAP, or
- 25 tpy of any combination of HAPs.
How are MACT standards organized?
EPA develops MACT standards by industry sector and publishes them as part of the NESHAP regulations. Most of the rules appear under 40 CFR Part 63, organized by subparts based on source category. Facilities must identify their source category to determine which NESHAP subpart applies.
A limited number of the rules are found under Part 61, organized by subparts based on specific HAPs (such as vinyl chloride) or activities (like asbestos demolition). Facilities need to confirm whether any of the NESHAPs for specific HAPs or activities apply.
How are MACT standards enforced?
The air permitting authority (usually a state or local air agency) incorporates applicable NESHAP requirements, including MACT standards, into a facility’s Title V operating permit.
What do MACT standards cover?
MACT standards can include a combination of measures, methods, processes, systems, and techniques to reduce or eliminate HAP emissions. Examples include:
- Conducting process changes;
- Substituting materials;
- Enclosing systems or processes; and
- Collecting, capturing, and/or treating HAP releases from emission points.
MACT standards may also contain design, equipment, work practice, and operation requirements.
Can MACT standards change?
Yes. The Clean Air Act requires EPA to evaluate MACT standards every 8 years (known as a risk and technology review). The agency will revise MACT standards when it determines improvements in technologies, practices, processes, or other emission-reduction methods warrant revisions.
Real-world example
Let’s take a look at the NESHAP for Polyether Polyols (PEPO) Production (PEPO NESHAP), recently updated in March 2026.
The MACT standards that apply to the PEPO NESHAP (Part 63 Subpart PPP) include:
- Emission limits for process vents;
- Equipment and work practice requirements for storage vessels, wastewater, and equipment leaks; and
- Work practice standards for heat exchange systems.
EPA concluded that improvements in controls warranted updates to specific MACT standards in the PEPO NESHAP, including for heat exchange systems. Specifically, the revised rule requires owners and operators of existing and new heat exchange systems in organic HAP service to:
- Conduct quarterly monitoring using the Modified El Paso Method (also known as the Air Stripping Method), and
- Repair leaks of total strippable hydrocarbon concentration (as methane) in the stripping gas of 6.2 parts per million by volume or greater.
The agency found that the Modified El Paso Method is more effective at identifying leaks, and it measures more compounds than previously required methods. As a result, this revised MACT standard will further reduce HAP emissions from heat exchange systems.
Key to remember: EPA controls hazardous air pollutant emissions from major sources through MACT standards based on the emission levels already achieved by the best-controlled facilities in an industry.
NewsGreenhouse GasesWaste/HazWasteToxic Substances Control Act - EPASafe Drinking WaterWater AnalysisWater ProgramsWater QualityMaximum Contaminant LevelsWalking Working SurfacesMonthly Roundup VideoCAA ComplianceSolid WasteCWA ComplianceLaddersEnglishUSAHeat StressIndustry NewsHeat and Cold ExposureSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyWasteMaritime SafetyEnvironmentalFocus AreaWater MonitoringVolatile Organic CompoundsAir ProgramsStationary Emission SourcesVideo
EHS Monthly Round Up - April 2026
In this April 2026 roundup video, we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what happened over the past month.
OSHA revised its National Emphasis Program on heat-related hazards. Going forward, the agency will prioritize inspections in 55 high-risk industries in indoor and outdoor work settings. The program remains in effect for 5 years from its April 10 effective date.
An OSHA proposed rule seeks to eliminate the November 18, 2036, deadline in the Walking-Working Surfaces standard that would require all fixed ladders extending more than 24 feet above a lower level to be equipped with personal fall arrest systems or ladder safety systems. OSHA also seeks feedback on nine specific questions related to the proposal, with comments due on June 5.
On April 17, OSHA revoked its House Falls in Marine Terminals standard at 1917.41. The agency said that because most cargo has been containerized and is moved by cranes, the standard is no longer necessary to protect employees.
Turning to environmental news, an EPA final rule further delays the submission period for the one-time PFAS report required of manufacturers. It pushes the start of the submission period to either 60 days after the effective date of a future final rule updating the PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027, whichever comes first.
An EPA final rule makes technical changes to the emission standards established in March 2024 for crude oil and natural gas facilities. The changes take effect June 8.
EPA published the draft 6th Contaminant Candidate List for the next group of contaminants to be considered for regulation under the Safe Drinking Water Act. The proposed list designates microplastics and pharmaceuticals as priority contaminant groups for the first time.
And finally, EPA plans to make significant changes to coal combustion residuals requirements. A proposed rule published April 13 would revise the regulations governing the disposal of coal combustion residuals in landfills and surface impoundments, as well as the beneficial use of coal combustion residuals.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
NewsGreenhouse GasesEnforcement and Audits - OSHAMonthly Roundup VideoWalking Working SurfacesCAA ComplianceUSAInjury and Illness RecordkeepingLaddersEnglishIndustry NewsEnforcement and Audits - OSHAOSHA InspectionsSafety & HealthInjury and Illness Recording CriteriaGeneral Industry SafetyEnvironmentalFocus AreaAir ProgramsVideo
EHS Monthly Round Up - February 2026
In this Februrary 2026 roundup video, we'll discuss the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what happened over the past month.
Fatal work injuries fell 4 percent in 2024, largely due to a decline in workplace drug- and alcohol-related overdoses. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, overdose fatalities fell from 512 in 2023 to 410 in 2024. Across all types of workplace incidents, there were 5,070 fatal work injuries in 2024, compared to 5,283 in 2023. Transportation incidents continue to be the most frequent type of fatal event, accounting for over 38 percent of all occupational fatalities in 2024.
OSHA is fast-tracking a proposal to remove the 2036 obligation to upgrade fall protection systems on fixed ladders that extend over 24 feet. This follows an industry petition from major chemical and petroleum industry groups, which argue the provision is unjustified, costly, and not supported by the rulemaking record. OSHA frames the upcoming proposed action as deregulatory, allowing employers to update fixed ladders at the end of their service lives. We’ll provide updates as more information becomes available.
As OSHA leans into “deregulatory” actions, lawmakers are moving to pressure the agency to issue “regulatory” rulemaking to protect American workers. The latest legislative wave of bills aims to fill regulatory gaps, tackle emerging hazards, expand OSHA authority, and raise penalties. Topics addressed by these bills include musculoskeletal disorders, heat stress, infectious diseases, wildfire smoke, and workplace violence.
In a recently issued letter of interpretation, OSHA states that a burn injury caused by a personal lithium-ion battery fire is work related if it occurs in the workplace during assigned working hours. The letter details an incident where an employee was burned when their rechargeable lithium-ion batteries for e-cigarettes sparked a fire after coming into contact with a key used for work.
A new report from the Department of Labor Office of Inspector General concludes that OSHA struggles to meet its mission, particularly in high-risk industries like healthcare, construction, and manufacturing. Several pages point to OSHA’s difficulties in effectively enforcing annual injury and illness reporting requirements, reaching the nation’s high-risk worksites for inspection, and addressing workplace violence by regulatory or other action.
Turning to environmental news, EPA extended the deadlines for Facility Evaluation Reports and related requirements for coal combustion residuals facilities. In most instances, the deadlines have been moved one or two years out.
And finally, EPA announced a final rule eliminating the 2009 Endangerment Finding and related greenhouse gas emission requirements for on-highway vehicles and vehicle engines. When the final rule takes effect, manufacturers and importers of new motor vehicles and motor vehicle engines will no longer have to measure, report, certify, or comply with federal greenhouse gas emission standards.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - March 2026
In this March 2026 roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what happened over the past month.
OSHA released an updated Job Safety and Health poster. Employers can use either the revised version or the older one, but the poster must be displayed in a conspicuous place where workers can easily see it.
OSHA recently removed a link from its Data topic webpage that displayed a list of “high-penalty cases” at or over $40,000 since 2015. The agency says it discontinued and removed it in December. The data is frozen and archived elsewhere.
OSHA published two new resources as part of its newly launched Safety Champions Program. The fact sheet provides an overview of how the program works, eligibility criteria, and key benefits. The step-by-step guide helps businesses navigate the core elements of OSHA’s Recommended Practices for Safety and Health Programs.
Several forces are nudging OSHA to address a number of workplace hazards and high-hazard industries. This comes from other agencies, safety organizations, watchdogs, legislative proposals, and persistent injury/fatality data. Among the hazards are combustible dust; first aid; personal protective equipment; and workplace violence. How all this translates into new regulations, guidance, programmed inspections, or other initiatives remains to be seen.
Turning to environmental news, EPA issued a proposed rule to require waste handlers to use electronic manifests to track all RCRA hazardous waste shipments. Stakeholders have until May 4 to comment on the proposal.
On March 10, EPA finalized stronger emission limits for new and existing large municipal waste combustors and made other changes to related standards.
And finally, EPA temporarily extended coverage under the 2021 Multi-Sector General Permit for industrial stormwater discharges until the agency issues a new general permit. The permit expired February 28 and remains in effect for facilities previously covered. EPA won’t take enforcement action against new facilities for unpermitted stormwater discharges if the facilities meet specific conditions.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
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EHS Monthly Round Up - January 2026
In this January 2026 roundup video, we'll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what happened over the past month.
Chemical manufacturers, importers, distributors, and employers will have an extra four months to comply with the provisions of OSHA’s revised Hazard Communication standard. When the rule was revised in 2024, it contained staggered compliance dates for those who classify or use chemical substances and mixtures. The first compliance date is now May 19 rather than January 19 of 2026.
On January 8, OSHA issued further technical corrections to its Hazard Communication final rule. An initial set of corrections was published in October 2024, and OSHA continued to review the standard for errors. The agency said these corrections should reduce confusion during the chemical classification process and prevent errors on labels and safety data sheets.
In 2024, private industry employers reported 2.5 million nonfatal workplace injuries and illnesses, according to the Bureau of Labor Statistics. This is down 3.1 percent from 2023 and largely due to a decrease in respiratory illnesses. The greatest number of cases involving days away from work, job restriction, or transfer were caused by overexertion, repetitive motion, and bodily conditions, followed by contact incidents.
Registration is open for OSHA’s Safety Champions Program, which is designed to help employers develop and implement effective safety and health programs. Participants can work at their own pace through Introductory, Intermediate, and Advanced levels.
Turning to environmental news, on January 9, EPA withdrew its direct final rule on SDS/Tier II reporting tied to OSHA HazCom, before it had a chance to take effect. The direct final rule was published back on November 17, 2025, and was intended to relax the Tier II and safety data sheet reporting requirements and align with OSHA’s HazCom standard. EPA said it plans to write a new rule addressing all public comments.
And finally, EPA published a final rule that changes certain requirements for wastewater discharges from coal-fired steam electric power plants. It applies to the deadlines established by the preceding rule finalized in 2024.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
Most Recent Highlights In Transportation
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsToxic Substances Control Act - EPAToxic Subtances Control Act - EPATSCA ComplianceToxic Substances - EPAEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)EnvironmentalEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-05-07T05:00:00Z
EPA postpones compliance for TCE uses with TSCA Section 6(g) exemptions
On May 5, 2026, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule postponing the effective date of compliance requirements for trichloroethylene (TCE) uses with Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Section 6(g) exemptions until judicial review is concluded.
Who’s impacted?
The delay applies to the conditions imposed on each TSCA Section 6(g) exemption at 40 CFR 751.325, including the Workplace Chemical Protection Program requirements at 751.315.
Since the compliance requirements haven’t taken effect, facilities that use TCE with TSCA Section 6(g) exemptions don’t have to comply with the provisions yet.
Why the delay?
In December 2024, EPA released the final TCE rule (2024 TCE rule). The rule ultimately bans all uses of TCE, but it allows uses with TSCA Section 6(g) exemptions to continue for a limited time as long as facilities comply with strict workplace controls. Currently, the 2024 TCE rule is under judicial review. EPA has delayed the effective date of the requirements for TCE uses with TSCA Section 6(g) exemptions until the judicial challenges to the 2024 TCE rule are resolved.
If you have a sense of déjà vu, it’s for a good reason. This is the fifth time the agency has delayed the compliance requirements for TSCA Section 6(g) exemptions. However, EPA’s previous postponements established specific dates for the provisions to take effect, but this rule doesn’t.
Key to remember: EPA has delayed the compliance requirements for TCE uses with TSCA Section 6(g) exemptions until judicial review is concluded.
NewsSafe Drinking WaterChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishWisconsinFocus Area
2026-05-04T05:00:00Z
Wisconsin adds requirements to federal lead and copper drinking water rule
Effective date: May 1, 2026
This applies to: Public water systems
Description of change: The Wisconsin Department of Natural Resources (department) finalized amendments to align state regulations with the Environmental Protection Agency’s (EPA’s) updated lead and copper control requirements for drinking water. While most of the amendments conform to federal standards, the state has additional standards. The department also:
- Requires community water systems to make four contact attempts (two more than federal requirements) by two different means for elementary schools and childcare facilities to schedule lead monitoring,
- Requires public water systems on reduced annual monitoring to analyze and report the same number of sample results for copper and lead (instead of the federal requirements that only half of the copper samples are analyzed),
- Requires public water systems undergoing temporary treatment or source water changes (unregulated by EPA) for more than 30 days to notify the department 10 days before the planned change or as soon as possible for an unplanned emergency change,
- Requires groundwater system water suppliers that request to limit their entry point sampling to obtain prior approval from the department,
- Requires water suppliers that provide point-of-use treatment devices for the corrosion control treatment compliance flexibility option to submit a written plan to the department (not required by the federal rule),
- Grants the department the authority to require analysis of total and dissolved lead during distribution system and site assessments where the federal rule doesn’t provide this authority to the state,
- Requires water suppliers that request to invalidate a reported sample result to provide substantial evidence that the sample meets one of the invalidation criteria in the rule, and
- Combines the lead and copper monitoring waivers into one waiver and requires public water systems to complete at least two 6-month rounds of standard tap water monitoring (for which the federal rule only requires one 6-month round).
NewsDistrict of ColumbiaChange NoticesChange NoticeCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalAir PermittingFocus AreaEnglishAir Programs
2026-05-04T05:00:00Z
District of Columbia updates odor control permit rules
Effective date: April 10, 2026
This applies to: Entities required to obtain an operating air permit under Nuisance Odor Regulations
Description of change: The District of Columbia’s Department of Energy and Environment (DOEE) finalized a rulemaking that allows sources of nuisance odors to implement odor controls before obtaining an operating air permit under 20 DCMR Section 200.
To qualify, an entity must obtain from the DOEE written approval of the controls in the Odor Control Plan (OCP) decision letter. Additionally, the source must apply for an operating permit under 200.2 within 60 days of receiving an OCP decision letter.
Related state info: Clean air operating permits state comparison
NewsChange NoticesChange NoticeCaliforniaMobile Emission SourcesCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalFocus AreaEnglishAir Programs
2026-05-04T05:00:00Z
California permanently adopts emergency vehicle rules
Effective date: April 1, 2026
This applies to: New vehicle and engine manufacturers
Description of change: The California Air Resources Board (CARB) permanently adopted the Emergency Vehicle Emissions Regulations, which CARB adopted in 2025 as a temporary measure.
The rule reverts the emission standards and requirements for vehicle and engine manufacturers to the regulations in effect before the adoption of:
- Advanced Clean Cars II (ACC II), and
- Heavy-Duty Engine and Vehicle Omnibus Low NOx (Omnibus).
CARB allows manufacturers to comply with ACC II and Omnibus requirements voluntarily.
In 2025, the Environmental Protection Agency revoked CARB’s waivers to implement the ACC II, Omnibus, and Advanced Clean Trucks rules.
NewsHazardous WasteIndustry NewsWaste GeneratorsWaste ManifestsWaste/HazWasteWaste HandlersWasteEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)TSD FacilitiesEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-04-28T05:00:00Z
Hazardous waste manifests: Hybrid vs. fully electronic
More industries are embracing the exclusive use of electronic platforms. For example, digital payments are replacing cash, news sites are going fully online, and cloud storage is eclipsing external computer storage. And, based on recent proposed rulemaking, hazardous waste manifests may join the list.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) proposed the Paper Manifest Sunset Rule in March 2026, planning to shift to electronic-only manifests for tracking hazardous waste that’s regulated by the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA).
If the proposed rule is finalized, regulated entities will have to track all hazardous waste shipments electronically. Specifically, generators, transporters, and receiving facilities could only use hybrid or fully electronic manifests on the Hazardous Waste Electronic Manifest System (e-Manifest).
So, what are the differences between hybrid and fully electronic manifests? Let’s compare the distinctions and explore some of the benefits that electronic manifests can offer.
What’s a hybrid manifest?
EPA initially established the hybrid manifest for generators that couldn’t fully participate in electronic manifests when the e-Manifest launched in 2018. The hybrid manifest combines paper and electronic manifests, allowing generators that aren’t registered in e-Manifest or don’t have an EPA identification (ID) number to sign printed copies of electronic manifests.
Here’s the general hybrid manifest process:
- The first transporter initiates an electronic manifest in e-Manifest. A hard copy of the electronic manifest is printed out, and the generator and initial transporter sign the paper copy.
- The generator keeps a signed paper copy on-site. The transporter keeps a signed paper copy with the shipment until it’s delivered to the receiving facility.
- From that point forward, the initial transporter and all subsequent waste handlers track the shipment in e-Manifest (using electronic signatures and electronic transmissions).
- The manifest is complete when the receiving facility or exporter electronically signs it on e-Manifest.
What’s a fully electronic manifest?
The fully electronic manifest is tracked completely online. All handlers — generators, transporters, and receiving facilities or exporters — must have an EPA ID number and be registered in e-Manifest to use the fully electronic manifest.
The entire process is conducted on e-Manifest:
- The manifest is created electronically in e-Manifest.
- All handlers electronically sign the manifest in e-Manifest.
- The manifest is complete when the receiving facility or exporter electronically signs it on e-Manifest.
What benefits do electronic manifests offer?
Regardless of whether EPA’s rule is finalized as is, electronic manifests offer hazardous waste handlers a range of benefits. Consider the following potential perks.
Compliance with existing regulations
Many handlers are already required to embrace electronic manifesting. In July 2024, EPA finalized the e-Manifest Third Rule, which requires:
- Large quantity generators and small quantity generators to register for e-Manifest,
- Exporters to submit manifests and continuation sheets to e-Manifest (and pay the associated fees), and
- Waste handlers to submit manifest-related reports and data corrections to e-Manifest.
Streamlined recordkeeping for generators
Hazardous waste handlers using e-Manifest automatically meet the recordkeeping requirements to maintain records of manifests (paper or electronic) since the manifests are retained electronically in the system.
This eliminates the need to keep hard copies. It also provides a centralized place where handlers can access these documents at any time.
However, the provision doesn’t apply to generators using hybrid manifests; they must keep the initial paper copies of the electronic manifest for 3 years.
Reduced costs
Embracing electronic manifesting removes the costs associated with printing paper manifests from EPA-approved sources.
Keep in mind, there’s an unavoidable cost for receiving facilities and exporters. These entities have to pay user fees for each manifest they submit to e-Manifest.
Proactive preparation
EPA’s proposed Paper Manifest Sunset Rule would prohibit the use of paper manifests 2 years after the publication of a final rule. Hazardous waste handlers who transition to using only electronic manifests now will be better prepared to comply with future regulations. It gives businesses time to coordinate resources and address any unexpected issues.
Key to remember: Do you know the differences between hybrid and fully electronic hazardous waste manifests? The distinctions could be the difference between compliance and noncompliance.
Most Recent Highlights In Safety & Health
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsToxic Substances Control Act - EPAToxic Subtances Control Act - EPATSCA ComplianceEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)EnvironmentalEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-04-27T05:00:00Z
EPA publishes first round of expiring TSCA CBI claims
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published the first list of expiring Confidential Business Information (CBI) claims for information submitted under the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA). The list covers CBI claims that expire from June 22, 2026, to July 31, 2026.
What are expiring CBI claims?
The Frank R. Lautenberg Chemical Safety for the 21st Century Act (which became law in June 2016) set an automatic 10-year expiration for most CBI claims made under TSCA. The first round of expiring claims starts in June 2026.
EPA allows businesses to request extensions of CBI protection for up to another 10 years.
How do I know if my CBI claims are expiring?
EPA will notify businesses of expiring CBI claims directly through the Central Data Exchange (CDX).
The agency will also release public lists of upcoming expiring CBI claims monthly on the “CBI Claim Expiration” webpage. The agency encourages businesses to review the lists to verify whether any of their claims are included.
How do I request an extension of expiring CBI claims?
Businesses seeking to extend a CBI claim beyond its expiration date must submit an extension request at least 30 days before the claim expires using the newly launched TSCA Section 14(e) CBI Claim Extension Request application in EPA’s CDX.
Here’s the general process:
- EPA notifies the business of an expiring CBI claim directly through CDX and via the public lists on the “CBI Claim Expiration” webpage.
- The business submits a request for extension through EPA’s CDX at least 30 days before the CBI claim expires. Requests must comply with the substantiation requirements at 40 CFR 703.5(a) and (b).
- EPA reviews the submission and either grants or denies the request.
What are the possible results?
If EPA approves the extension request, the information in the CBI claim will remain protected for up to another 10 years.
If EPA denies the extension request, the agency can publicize the information in the claim 30 days after notifying the submitter in CDX. Further, if a business doesn’t submit an extension request at least 30 days before the expiration date, EPA may publicize the information without notifying the submitter.
Key to remember: EPA published the first round of expiring CBI claims for information submitted under TSCA. Businesses must submit extension requests to keep the information protected.
NewsChange NoticesAboveground Storage TanksChange NoticeEnvironmentalStorage TanksFocus AreaEnglishNorth DakotaTank Systems
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
North Dakota establishes AST regulations
Effective date: April 1, 2026
This applies to: Owners and operators of aboveground storage tanks (ASTs) and liquid fuel storage tanks
Description of change: The Department of Environmental Quality adopted technical standards and corrective action requirements for ASTs. The department also approved amendments to the registration dates and fee categories of the Petroleum Tank Release Compensation Fund for liquid fuels storage tanks.
Related state info: Aboveground storage tanks (ASTs) state comparison — ASTs
NewsWater PermittingPublicly Owned Treatment WorksChange NoticesChange NoticeOhioWater ProgramsEnvironmentalWater ProgramsEnglishFocus AreaCWA Compliance
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
Ohio finalizes sewage sludge amendments
Effective date: March 1, 2026
This applies to: Facilities regulated by the sewage sludge program
Description of change: The Ohio Environmental Protection Agency finalized changes to the sewage sludge program through its 5-year review of the regulations. The approved amendments:
- Add professional operator of record requirements for privately owned treatment works;
- Increase and add isolation distances for facilities;
- Prohibit beneficial use of biosolids within a vulnerable hydrogeological setting;
- Remove dioxin monitoring requirements; and
- Add requirements for beneficial user certification (including the application and examination process, recordkeeping requirements, and reasons for suspending or revoking a certification).
NewsNew MexicoNew Mexico Environment Department (NMED)Change NoticesChange NoticeMobile Emission SourcesCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalFocus AreaEnglishAir Programs
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
New Mexico adopts Clean Transportation Fuel Program rules
Effective date: April 1, 2026
This applies to: Transportation fuel produced in, imported into, or dispensed for use in New Mexico
Description of change: The New Mexico Environment Department finalized regulations to implement the Clean Transportation Fuel Program (CTFP) to reduce the carbon intensity of transportation fuel (including gasoline and diesel). The program covers transportation fuel producers, importers, and dispensers.
The CTFP:
- Establishes annual statewide carbon intensity standards that apply to transportation fuel (e.g., gasoline and diesel) produced, imported, and dispensed for use in New Mexico;
- Allocates credits and calculates deficits for regulated entities based on the fuel’s carbon intensity; and
- Sets up a marketplace for selling and purchasing credits to comply with the carbon intensity standards.
The first compliance period runs from April 1, 2026, to December 31, 2027. The first compliance period report is due by April 30, 2028. Annual compliance reports will be due by April 30 for the previous calendar year.
NewsRecyclingChange NoticesChange NoticeMaineSustainabilityProduct StewardshipSustainabilityWaste MinimizationEnvironmentalEnglishSustainabilityFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
Maine lists materials covered for packaging stewardship program
Effective date: March 3, 2026
This applies to: Entities subject to the Stewardship Program for Packaging Regulations
Description of change: The Maine Department of Environmental Protection’s amendments to the Stewardship Program for Packaging Regulations (06-096 C.M.R. Chapter 428) include:
- Aligning the rules with changes made by An Act to Improve Recycling by Updating the Stewardship Program for Packaging (L.D. 1423), and
- Adding Appendix A — The Packaging Material Types List to the Stewardship Program for Packaging Regulations.
L.D. 1423:
- Excludes certain commercial, cosmetic, medical, environmental, dangerous, hazardous, and flammable product packaging from the program requirements;
- Excludes packaging of products related to public health and water quality testing from the program requirements;
- Requires the department to adopt a process for approving a producer payment system; and
- Updates definitions for clarity.
Appendix A defines packaging material and designates the material types readily recyclable as applicable. It may also designate materials as compostable or reusable.
Most Recent Highlights In Human Resources
NewsWaste/HazWasteChange NoticesChange NoticeWasteCaliforniaEnvironmentalSolid WasteEnglishFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
California adopts permanent illegal disposal rules
Effective date: March 4, 2026
This applies to: Entities that handle, transfer, compost, transform, or dispose of solid waste
Description of change: CalRecycle made permanent the current illegal disposal emergency regulations, allowing enforcement agencies to take action against any person who illegally disposes of solid waste.
The rule also:
- Adds the land application activities to the regulations, making the activities subject to the permitting tier structure and associated requirements (i.e., operator filing requirements, state minimum standards, recordkeeping, and enforcement agency inspection requirements); and
- Amends sampling and recordkeeping for solid waste facilities, operations, and activities.
NewsWest VirginiaChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishUnderground Injection ControlFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
West Virginia establishes fee schedule for UIC Program
Effective date: March 4, 2026
This applies to: Underground Injection Control (UIC) Program permittees
Description of change: This rule establishes the schedules of fees for carbon dioxide capture and sequestration authorized by the West Virginia Department of Environmental Protection’s (WVDEP’s) Division of Water and Waste Management.
EPA granted primacy to the WVDEP to implement the UIC Program for Class VI wells in February 2025.
NewsGreenhouse GasesChange NoticesChange NoticeColoradoCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalFocus AreaEnglishAir Programs
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
Colorado extends timeline to comply with GHG intensity targets
Effective date: April 14, 2026
This applies to: Small operators in the oil and gas sector
Description of change: The Colorado Air Quality Control Commission revised the intensity targets for reducing greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions for small oil and gas operators (those with less than 45 thousand barrels of oil equivalent (kBOE) production in 2025). The commission extended the first deadline to 2030 for small operators to meet applicable intensity requirements.
However, small operators must still submit the intensity plan for the 2027 targets, which is due by June 30, 2026.
Related state info: Clean air operating permits state comparison — Clean air operating permits
NewsWater PermittingChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsColoradoEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
Colorado finalizes state dredge and fill permit regulations
Effective date: March 30, 2026
This applies to: Projects that require preconstruction notification or compensatory mitigation
Description of change: The Colorado Water Quality Control Division finalized rules for implementing a state dredge and fill discharge authorization program established by HB24-1379. The program covers state waters that aren’t subject to federal dredge and fill permitting requirements under Section 404 of the Clean Water Act.
The division will continue issuing Temporary Authorizations until August 31, 2026. After that, applicants must apply for coverage under General Authorizations. The division already accepts applications for Individual Authorizations.
Related state info: Construction water permitting — Colorado
NewsNew YorkWater PermittingPublicly Owned Treatment WorksMunicipal WastewaterChange NoticesChange NoticeWater ProgramsWater ReportingIndustrial WastewaterEnvironmentalCWA ComplianceEnglishFocus Area
2026-04-24T05:00:00Z
New York adds wastewater cybersecurity rules
Effective date: March 26, 2026
This applies to: Wastewater treatment facilities
Description of change: The New York State Department of Environmental Conservation added cybersecurity regulations for wastewater treatment facilities. The rules:
- Require all State Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (SPDES) permittees to report cybersecurity incidents,
- Require publicly owned treatment works (POTWs) to establish, maintain, and implement an Emergency Response Plan and certify compliance with the provisions annually by March 28;
- Establish baseline cybersecurity control requirements;
- Add network monitoring and logging for certain POTWs with design flows of 10 million+ gallons per day; and
- Require wastewater treatment plant operators to complete a minimum number of training hours within their existing required hours on cybersecurity to renew certification every 5 years.
New Network Poll
Required Construction OSHA Training At-A-Glance
May 18, 2026
* Indicates annual training or employee information is required.
| Who: | Employers must inform each employee:
|
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers may permit only those employees qualified by training or experience to operate equipment and machinery. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: |
|
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | All employees who will be exposed to toxic substances and harmful physical agents. |
| When: | At the time of hire and at least annually thereafter. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. But, the employer is required to make copies of 1910.1020 and its appendices readily available. |
| Who: | Employees are to be instructed in their responsibilities under the emergency action plan. |
| When: | Before implementing the plan, a sufficient number of persons must be trained to assist in the evacuation procedures. The employer is to review the plan with each employee initially when the plan is developed, upon the employee’s initial assignment, when the employee’s responsibilities under the plan change, and whenever the plan is changed. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | A person who has a valid certificate in first aid training from the U.S. Bureau of Mines, the American Red Cross, or equivalent training is to be available at the worksite to render first aid in the absence of an infirmary, clinic, hospital, or physician that is reasonably accessible. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Employees subjected to sound levels exceeding those listed in Table D-2 of 1926.52, where administrative or engineering controls fail to reduce sound levels within the levels of the table. In all cases where the sound levels exceed the values shown in Table D-2, a continuing, effective hearing conservation program shall be administered. An August 4, 1992, OSHA letter of interpretation states that an effective hearing conservation program consists of several elements, including, but not limited to, “employee training and education regarding noise hazards and protection measures.” |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Per 1910.1096(i), employees working in or frequenting any portion of a radiation area shall be:
The above instruction must be reinforced by posting the following in a conspicuous location(s) or keeping such documents available for examination of employees upon request:
|
| When: | Initially. However, the employer is not required by 1910.1096 to provide the above specified employee instruction and postings if the employer is regulated by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission’s 10 CFR 20 standard or if the employer is in in a state named at 1910.1096(p)(3) governed by the ionizing radiation laws and regulations of that state. |
| What records: |
|
| Trainer qualifications: | None |
| Who: | Per 1910.1096(m)(2), where an employer is required to report an overexposure to OSHA, then the worker(s) that suffer the exposure to radiation or to concentrations of radioactive material must be notified in writing. |
| When: | When the employer is required to report to OSHA any exposure of an individual to radiation or to concentrations of radioactive material. However, the employer is not required by 1910.0196 to provide the above notification if the employee is protected:
|
| What records: |
|
| Trainer qualifications: | None |
| Who: | Per 1910.1096(n)(1), employees for whom personnel monitoring is required under 1910.1096(d) must be advised of their individual exposure. |
| When: | At least annually advise each employee (whom personnel monitoring is required) of the individual’s exposure. |
| What records: |
|
| Trainer qualifications: | None |
| Who: | Only qualified and trained employees can be assigned to install, adjust, and operate laser equipment. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | Laser equipment operators must carry proof of their qualification. |
| Who: | When employees use respirators, the employer must meet the requirements (including training requirements) of the Respiratory Protection standard (1926.103). |
| When: | Training must precede the use of a respirator. Retraining on respirator use is required to be conducted annually, and whenever necessary to ensure safe use. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific respirator training documentation is required. The employer is required to maintain records of employee medical evaluations and respirator fit testing results. |
| Who: | All employees working in and around open-surface tank operations must be instructed on the job’s hazards and the personal protection and first aid procedures applicable to these hazards. A trained stand-by employee with a suitable respirator must be present when it is necessary to enter a tank which may contain a hazardous atmosphere. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Train all workers who have an exposure or a potential for exposure to hazardous chemicals. |
| When: | Employees must be trained prior to initial exposure and when a new chemical hazard is introduced. No specified length of training time. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employees who may be exposed to airborne 4,4’-Methylenedianiline (MDA) at or above its action level or where dermal exposure to MDA can occur. (Note: the standard does not apply to finished articles that contain MDA or to materials in any form that contain less than 0.1% MDA by weight or volume.) Also, this standard incorporates by reference 1910.38, 1910.1200, and 1910.134, which have additional training requirements. Also, any person who cleans or launders contaminated protective clothing is to be informed of the hazards of exposure to MDA. In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance, and the employee is to receive a copy of the physician’s written opinion within fifteen (15) days after the employer receives it. |
| When: |
|
| Recordkeeping: | The employer is to maintain a record of the contents of the training program and shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the program to employees and to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. The employer shall make a copy of 1910.1050 and its appendices available to employees. There are additional recordkeeping requirements for exposure monitoring and medical surveillance programs. |
| Training link(s): |
| Who: | For non-bulk packages which will not be reshipped, the provisions of 1926.61 are met if a label or other acceptable marking is affixed in accordance with the Hazard Communication Standard (1910.1200). If 1910.1200 is followed, then employers must train all workers who have an exposure or a potential for exposure to hazardous chemicals, in accordance with 1910.1200(h). |
| When: | If 1910.1200 is followed, employees must be trained prior to initial exposure and when a new chemical hazard is introduced. No length of training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | All employees subject to lead exposure at or above the action level on any day, or employees who are subject to exposure to lead compounds which may cause skin or eye irritation. |
| When: | Initial training shall occur before an employee starts an affected job assignment and at least annually for employees exposed at or above the action level on any day. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer is to maintain a record of the contents of the training program and shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the program to employees and to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. The employer shall establish and maintain an accurate record of all monitoring and other data used in conducting employee exposure assessments as required in 1926.62(d). |
| Training link(s): |
| Who: | Employees who operate a process. Contract employers must inform contract employees of known potential fire, explosion, or toxic release hazards related to the contractor’s work and process. |
| When: | Initial training and refresher training every three years or more often if necessary. |
| Recordkeeping: | Training requires written operating procedures. Employers must record employee identity, date of training, and means used to verify that the employee understood the training. |
| Who: |
|
| When: | OSHA specifies training time requirements for all of the various duties involved.
|
| Recordkeeping: | Training certification is required under paragraph (e), hazardous waste cleanup site operations; paragraph (p), hazardous waste treatment, storage, and/or disposal operations; and paragraph (q), emergency response to hazardous substance releases. Alternatively to training certification, paragraph (e) allows for documentation or certification that an employee’s work experience and/or training has resulted in training equivalent to required training. For annual refresher training, paragraph (q) also requires a statement of the training or competency. For the statement of competency, also keep a record of the methodology used to demonstrate competency. |
| Who: | Ear protective devices inserted in the ear are to be fitted or determined individually by competent persons. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Employees who use eye or face protection. Eye and face protection equipment required by 29 CFR 1926 shall meet the requirements specified in the 2010, 2003, or 1989 (R-1998) editions of the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standard Z87.1, incorporated by reference in 1926.6, or, alternatively, shall be demonstrated to at least be as effective as protective eye and face protection devices that are constructed in accordance with one of the above ANSI standards. The ANSI standards call for eye and face protection users to be trained in the proper use and application of the equipment, its limitations, and inspection and maintenance, along with proper storage. The 2010 edition adds training in fitting the equipment. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Effectively train employees who are required to use respirators. Employees who voluntarily wear respirators must, at least, be given the information in 1910.134 App. D. |
| When: | Training must be provided initially or before using a respirator. Retraining shall be administered annually, and whenever:
|
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. Documentation is required for medical evaluations and fit testing. |
| Training link(s): |
| Who: | The employer is to provide a trained and equipped firefighting organization (fire brigade) as warranted by the project. According to 1926.155, fire brigade means an organized group of employees that are knowledgeable, trained, and skilled in the safe evacuation of employees during emergency situations and in assisting in fire fighting operations. During demolition or alterations, existing automatic sprinkler installation control valves may only be operated by properly authorized persons. The alarm code and reporting instructions are to be conspicuously posted at phones and employee entrances. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Flaggers are to use signaling directions that conform to Part VI of the Manual on Uniform Traffic Control Devices (1988 Edition, Revision 3, September 3, 1993, or the Millennium Edition, December 2000). |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Employees using hand and power tools and exposed to the hazard of falling, flying, abrasive, and splashing objects, or exposed to harmful dusts, fumes, mists, vapors, or gases. These employees must be provided with the particular personal protective equipment necessary to protect them from the hazard, and all personal protective equipment shall meet the requirements and be maintained according to 29 CFR 1926 Subparts D and E. See the training requirements for 1926.101, 1926.102, and 1926.103 above. |
| When: | See the training requirements for 1926.103 above. No training time is specified for 1926.101 or 1926.102. |
| Recordkeeping: | See the training requirements for 1926.103 above. No training recordkeeping requirements are specified for 1926.101 or 1926.102. |
| Who: | Employees operating powder-actuated hand tools. |
| When: | Training is required before operation of tool. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Employers of gas and arc welders must instruct them in the safe use of fuel gas and the safe means of arc welding and cutting. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Employees assigned to guard against fire during welding, cutting, or heating operations (and for a sufficient period of time after completion of the work) are to be instructed on the specific anticipated fire hazards and how the provided firefighting equipment is to be used. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | A competent person is to test a surface covered by a preservative coating for flammability before welding, cutting, or heating is started (when the flammability of the preservative coating is not known). |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | The employer must designate one or more competent persons to implement the assured equipment grounding conductor program (when a program is used). |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. Records must be kept of the tests performed as required by the assured equipment grounding conductor program. |
| Who: | Before work is begun, the employer must:
|
| When: | Before electrical work is begun. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Scaffolding erection, movement, dismantling, or alteration activities must be performed only by experienced and trained employees selected for such work by a competent person. A competent person qualified in scaffold erection, moving, dismantling or alteration must supervise and direct the erection, movement, dismantling, or alteration of scaffolds. According to 1926.450, “Qualified means one who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated ... [the] ability to solve or resolve problems related to the subject matter, the work, or the project.” |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: |
|
| When: |
|
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Each employee who might be exposed to fall hazards is to be trained to recognize the hazards of falling and must be trained in the procedures to be followed in order to minimize these hazards. Training is to be conducted by a competent person who is qualified in the areas outlined in the standard. |
| When: | Initial training and retraining when the employer has reason to believe that any affected employee does not have the required understanding and skill. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer is to prepare a written certification record that contains the name or other identity of the employee trained, the date(s) of the training, and the signature of the person who conducted the training or the signature of the employer. The latest training certification is to be maintained. |
| Who: | Anyone operating a powered industrial truck must be trained and evaluated. |
| When: | Training and evaluation must occur before the worker operates the vehicle without direct supervision. Refresher training in relevant topics is needed when the vehicle is operated in an unsafe manner, after any accident or near-miss, after an evaluation shows retraining is needed, upon assignment to a different type of truck, and upon changes in the workplace that affect safe truck operation. An evaluation is required at least every three years. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer must certify that the operator has been trained and evaluated. The certification must include the operator’s name, the dates of the training and evaluation, and the name of the trainer/evaluator. |
| Who: | Employees engaged in site clearing are to be instructed in the first aid treatment available. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Each employee working in a Controlled Decking Zone (CDZ) must have completed CDZ training in accordance with 1926.761. A controlled decking zone may be established in that area of the structure over 15 and up to 30 feet above a lower level where metal decking is initially being installed and forms the leading edge of a work area. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Steel erection employees exposed to fall hazards and those engaged in multiple lift rigging, connector, and Controlled Decking Zone (CDZ) procedures. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | All employees are to be instructed in the recognition and avoidance of hazards associated with underground construction activities. Oncoming shifts are to be informed of any hazardous occurrences or conditions that have or may affect employee safety. At least one designated person is to be on duty above ground to summon aid and keep an accurate count of employees underground. Qualified rescue teams are to be available. A competent person is to inspect the roof, face, and walls of the work area at the start of each shift and as often as necessary to determine ground stability. After blasting in shafts, a competent person is to determine if walls, ladders, timbers, etc. have loosened. A competent person is to inspect all drilling equipment before each use. Employees working below jumbo decks are to be warned whenever drilling is about to begin. A competent person is to inspect haulage equipment before each shift. Employees are to be given suitable instructions before maintenance, repairs, or other work is started in the shaft served by a cage, skip, or bucket. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Every employee is to be instructed in the rules and regulations which concern his safety or the safety of others. At least one employer-designated competent person is to be present at all times. When a medical lock is required, it is to be under the charge of an attendant who is trained in the use of the lock and has been instructed regarding steps to be taken in the treatment of decompression illness. |
| When: | Every employee going under air pressure for the first time is to be instructed on how to avoid excessive discomfort. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Prior to permitting employees to start demolition operations, a competent person must make an engineering survey of the structure to determine the condition of the framing, floors, and walls, and possibility of unplanned collapse of any portion of the structure. Any adjacent structure where employees may be exposed shall also be similarly checked. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | A substantial gate shall be installed in each materials chute at or near the discharge end. A competent employee must be assigned to control the operation of the gate, and the backing and loading of trucks. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Employees in demolition operations involving cranes, derricks, and mechanical equipment. |
| When: | Training times, if any, are specified in accordance with 29 CFR 1926 subparts N, O, and CC, as referenced by 1926.856(c). |
| Recordkeeping: | Training record requirements, if any, are specified in accordance with subparts, N, O, and CC. |
| Who: | Employees in steel construction removal operations involving cranes, derricks, or other mechanical equipment. |
| When: | Training times, if any, are specified in accordance with 29 CFR 1926 subparts N and CC, as referenced by 1926.858(b). |
| Recordkeeping: | Training record requirements, if any, are specified in accordance with subparts N and CC. |
| Who: | During demolition, a competent person shall conduct continuing inspections as the work progresses to detect hazards resulting from weakened or deteriorated floors, or walls, or loosened material. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Blasters (persons authorized to use explosives for blasting purposes) must meet the standard’s qualifications requirements. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Drivers of vehicles transporting explosives are to be licensed and familiar with local, state, and federal regulations governing the transportation of explosives. The driver must be trained to use the vehicle’s fire extinguisher. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | All employees are to familiarize themselves with (and conform to) the posted code of blasting signals. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: |
|
| When: | Before exposure involving the construction of electric power transmission and distribution lines and equipment. Construction includes the erection of new electric transmission and distribution lines and equipment, and the alteration, conversion, and improvement of existing electric transmission and distribution lines and equipment.
Additional training (or retraining) as necessary (e.g., safe work practice noncompliance, new technology, new equipment types, changes in procedures, or not normally used job duties). Contractor/host information transfer must take place before work begins and within two days after discovering any unanticipated hazardous conditions. |
| Recordkeeping: | Each employee must demonstrate proficiency in the work practices involved. Though they are not required, employment records that indicate that an employee has successfully completed the required electrical training are one way of keeping track of when an employee has demonstrated proficiency. |
| Who: | First-aid training is required for the number of employees specified in the regulation. This training is in addition to that required by 1926.50. See the definition of first-aid training at 1926.968. |
| When: | The proper number of persons with first-aid training must be available before performing work on, or associated with, exposed lines or equipment energized at 50 volts or more. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation required. |
| Who: | Job briefings for employees involved in the job. The briefing conducted by the employee in charge of the job. The person in charge of the job must be provided with all information that relates to the determination of existing characteristics required by 1926.950(d). An employee working alone need not conduct a job briefing; however, the employer shall ensure that the tasks to be performed are planned as if a briefing were required. |
| When: | Before employees start each job. At least one job briefing before each day or shift. If the work or operations to be performed during the work day or shift are repetitive and similar, at least one job briefing shall be conducted before the start of the first job of each day or shift. Additional job briefings must be held if significant changes, which might affect the safety of the employees, occur during the course of the work. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation required. |
| Who: | Each employee who enters an enclosed space or who serves as an attendant must be trained in the hazards of enclosed-space entry, in enclosed-space entry procedures, and in enclosed-space rescue procedures. Also, while work is being performed in the enclosed space, an attendant with first-aid training must be immediately available outside the space. Training in accordance with 29 CFR 1926 Subpart AA (1926.1200 to .1213), Confined Spaces in Construction Standard, is required for employees that will enter any enclosed space that contains a hazardous atmosphere. |
| When: | Before entry. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation specifically mentioned at 1926.953; however, 29 CFR 1926 Subpart AA calls for training documentation. |
| Who: | Personal protective equipment and personal fall arrest systems must meet the requirements of Part 1926 Subpart E (1926.95 to .107) and Subpart M (1926.500 to .503 and Appendices), respectively. Therefore, please refer to the training requirements for those subparts, specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. For the purpose of paragraphs 1926.954(b)(3)(iii)(B) to (C), qualified employees must be proficient in climbing and the use of fall protection under 1926.950(b)(7). |
| When: | See the training requirements for Part 1926 Subparts E and M specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. Qualified employees must be proficient prior to climbing or changing location on poles, towers, or similar structures. |
| Recordkeeping: | See the requirements for Part 1926 Subparts E and M specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. Though they are not required, employment records that indicate that an employee has successfully completed the required electrical training are one way of keeping track of when an employee has demonstrated proficiency. |
| Who: | Materials handling and storage must comply with applicable material-handling and material-storage requirements in Part 1926, including those in Subparts N (1926.550 to .555) and CC (1926.1400 to .1442 and Appendices). Therefore, please refer to the training requirements for those subparts, specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. |
| When: | See the training requirements for Part 1926 Subparts N and CC, if any, specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. |
| Recordkeeping: | See the training requirements for Part 1926 Subparts N and CC, if any, specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. |
| Who: | Mechanical equipment must be operated in accordance with applicable requirements in Part 1926, including Subpart N (1926.550 to .555), Subpart O (1926.600 to .606), and Subpart CC (1926.1400 to .1442 and Appendices), with some exceptions. Therefore, please refer to the training requirements for those subparts, specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. |
| When: | See the training requirements for Part 1926 Subparts N, O, and CC, if any, specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. |
| Recordkeeping: | See the training requirements for Part 1926 Subparts N, O, and CC, if any, specified elsewhere in this At-A-Glance information. |
| Who: | Only qualified employees may work on or with exposed energized lines or parts of equipment. Only qualified employees may work in areas containing unguarded, uninsulated energized lines or parts of equipment operating at 50 volts or more. |
| When: | Before work on exposed live parts, or near enough to them to expose the employee to any hazard they present. |
| Recordkeeping: | Though they are not required, employment records that indicate that an employee has successfully completed the required electrical training are one way of keeping track of when an employee has demonstrated proficiency. |
| Who: | Each employee involved in high-voltage and high-power testing performed in laboratories, shops, and substations, and in the field and on electric transmission and distribution lines and equipment. This applies only to testing involving interim measurements using high voltage, high power, or combinations of high voltage and high power, and not to testing involving continuous measurements as in routine metering, relaying, and normal line work. |
| When: | Training must be provided upon initial assignment to the test area. In addition, retraining must be provided as required by 1926.950(b). |
| Recordkeeping: | Though they are not required, employment records that indicate that an employee has successfully completed the required electrical training are one way of keeping track of when an employee has demonstrated proficiency. |
| Who: | Supervisors of live-line barehand work and employees using the live-line barehand technique on energized circuits are to be trained in conformance with 1926.950(b) in the technique and in the safety requirements of 1926.964(c). |
| When: | Before using or supervising the use of the live-line barehand technique on energized circuits. |
| Recordkeeping: | Though they are not required, employment records that indicate that an employee has successfully completed the required electrical training are one way of keeping track of when an employee has demonstrated proficiency. |
| Who: | First-aid training is required for an employee that must be available on the surface in the immediate vicinity of the manhole or vault entrance to render emergency assistance. See the definition of first-aid training at 1926.968. |
| When: | Before work on underground electrical installations is performed in a manhole or vault containing energized electric equipment. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation required. |
| Who: | Job briefings in accordance with 1926.952 for each employee working in a substation. The briefing covers information on special system conditions affecting employee safety, including the location of energized equipment in or adjacent to the work area and the limits of any deenergized work area. |
| When: | At least one job briefing before each day or shift involving entry of a substation. Additional job briefings must be held if significant changes, which might affect safety of the employees, occur during the course of the work performed in a substation. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation required. |
| Who: |
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| When: |
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| Recordkeeping: |
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| Who: | Each employee using stairways and ladders is to be trained to recognize hazards and follow procedures to minimize the hazards. |
| When: | Retraining is to be provided as necessary. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | All employees who work as commercial dive team members. |
| When: | Employees must be trained prior to conducting any tasks on the dive team. There is no specified length of training time. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Persons who supervise hazard control operations related to asbestos, tremolite, anthophyllite, and actinolite must be trained in engineering controls and in abatement, the contents of this standard, and identification and removal procedures. |
| When: | Training is provided before initial assignment and at least annually thereafter. Also, within five working days after receipt, the employer is to notify the employee in writing of exposure monitoring results. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer must have all written materials relating to the employee training program including this regulation, available to all affected employees. Training records must be maintained for one year beyond an employee’s last day of employment. |
| Training link(s): |
| Who: | Authorized employees (those employees assigned to work where a regulated carcinogen is manufactured, processed, used, repackaged, released, handled, or stored). This standard incorporates by reference 1910.134, which has additional training requirements for wearing respirators. |
| When: | Prior to being authorized to enter a regulated area and annually thereafter. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Any employee engaged in vinyl chloride or polyvinyl chloride operations (including manufacture, reaction, packaging, repackaging, storage, handling, or use). (Note: does not apply to employees who handle or use fabricated products made of polyvinyl chloride.) This standard incorporates by reference 1910.134, which has additional training requirements for employees who wear respirators. |
| When: | Prior to or at the time of initial assignment and annually thereafter. Also, within fifteen (15) working days after receipt, the employer is to notify the employee in writing of exposure monitoring results. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | Training is to be provided to employees who are subject to exposure to inorganic arsenic above the action level (without regard to respirator use), or for whom there is a possibility of skin or eye irritation from inorganic arsenic. (Does not apply to employees exposed in agriculture or to employees exposed from pesticide application, treating wood with preservatives or using arsenically preserved wood.) Also, any person who cleans or launders contaminated protective clothing is to be informed in writing of the hazards of exposure to inorganic arsenic. In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance, and the employee is to receive a copy of the physician’s written opinion. |
| When: | Training to be provided at the time of initial assignment, and shall be repeated at least annually. Also, within fifteen (15) working days after receipt, the employer is to notify the employee in writing of exposure monitoring results. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the employee information and training program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees a copy of 1910.1018 and its appendices. There are additional recordkeeping requirements for exposure monitoring and medical surveillance programs. |
| Who: | Each employee with occupational exposure to beryllium in all forms, compounds, and mixtures in construction, except:
If an employer has an employee with occupational exposure to beryllium as specified above, the employer must:
Also, each employee who is, or can reasonably be expected to be, exposed to airborne beryllium can demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the nine training elements listed at 1926.1024(m)(4)(ii). |
| When: |
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| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. However, a copy of 1926.1124 and its appendices must be readily available without cost to each covered employee and designated employee representative(s). |
| Who: | All employees who are potentially exposed to chromium (VI). This regulation incorporates by reference 1910.134 and 1910.1200, which have additional training requirements. Also, any person who cleans or launders contaminated protective clothing is to be informed in writing of the hazards of exposure to chromium (VI). In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance, and the employee is to receive a copy of the physician’s written opinion within two weeks after the employer receives it. |
| When: | Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment. Also, within five working days after receipt, the employer is to notify the employee in writing of exposure monitoring results. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | All employees who are potentially exposed to cadmium. This standard incorporates by reference 1910.134 and 1926.59, which have additional training requirements. Also, any person who cleans or launders contaminated protective clothing is to be informed of the hazards of exposure to cadmium. In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance. Within fifteen (15) days after a request by the employee or other specified persons, the employer is to make the employee’s medical surveillance records available for examination or copying. |
| When: | Prior to or at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter. No later than five (5) working days after receiving monitoring results, the employer is to notify employees of their exposure level in writing. Also, each time that employees undergo a medical exam by an employer-selected physician, the employer must promptly notify the employees that they have the right to seek a second medical opinion. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer is to maintain a record of the contents of the training program and shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. There are additional recordkeeping requirements for exposure monitoring and medical surveillance programs. |
| Training link(s): |
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| Who: | Training must be provided to all employees who are exposed to airborne concentrations of benzene at or above the action level. |
| When: | Training shall be provided prior to or at the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter. Also, within fifteen (15) working days after receipt, the employer is to notify the employee in writing of exposure monitoring results. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Training link(s): |
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| Who: | Employees who are assigned to work in a regulated area. Employees who refuse to participate in the medical surveillance program are to be informed of the possible health consequences. In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance, and the employee is to receive a copy of the physician’s written opinion. Also, this standard incorporates by reference 1910.134, which has additional training requirements for employees who wear respirators. |
| When: | At the time of initial assignment and annually thereafter. Also, within fifteen (15) working days after receipt, the employer is to notify the employee in writing of exposure monitoring results. |
| Recordkeeping: | Employees who refuse to participate in the medical surveillance program are to sign a statement that they understand the risks involved with refusing the examination. Appropriate procedures and schedules are to be posted in the regulated area. The employer is to maintain a record of the contents of the training program and shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the program to the Secretary and the Director. The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees a copy of 1910.1029 and its appendices. There are additional recordkeeping requirements for exposure monitoring and medical surveillance programs. |
| Training link(s): |
| Who: | Applies to employees who are occupationally exposed to 1,2-dibromo-3-chloropropane (DBCP). Employees must meet training requirements when they work in operations where DBCP is stored, transported, distributed or sold in intact containers that are sealed to prevent exposures to DBCP vapors or liquid, but they may be exempt from some of the other requirements of the standard. This standard does not apply to employees who are exposed solely from the application and use of DBCP as a pesticide. Also, this standard incorporates by reference 1910.134, which has additional training requirements for employees who wear respirators. Also, any person who cleans or launders contaminated protective clothing is to be informed of the hazards of exposure to DBCP. In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance, and the employee is to receive a copy of the physician’s written opinion. |
| When: | Annually, the employer is required to inform the employees of the information contained in the standard’s Appendix A. Also, within fifteen (15) working days after receiving monitoring results, the employer is to notify employees of their exposure level in writing. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer is to maintain a record of the contents of the training program and shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees a copy of 1910.1044 and its appendices. There are additional recordkeeping requirements for exposure monitoring and medical surveillance programs. |
| Who: | Employees occupationally exposed to acrylonitrile (AN). The standard does not apply to processing, use, and handling of finished polymers (and products made from polymers) of ABS resins, SAN resins, nitrile barrier resins, solid nitrile elastomers, acrylic and modacrylic fibers, and solids made from or containing AN that will not be heated above 170 degrees F. (Also exempt are other AN materials that are not capable of releasing specified amounts of airborne AN.) Also, this standard incorporates by reference 1910.132 and 1910.134, which have additional training requirements for employees who wear personal protective equipment or respirators. Also, any person who cleans or launders contaminated protective clothing is to be informed of the hazards of exposure to AN. In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance, and the employee is to receive a copy of the physician’s written opinion. |
| When: | At the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter. Also, within five (5) working days after receiving monitoring results, the employer is to notify employees of their exposure level in writing. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer is to maintain a record of the contents of the training program and shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the program to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. The employer shall make readily available to all affected employees a copy of 1910.1045 and its appendices. A training certificate is required for employees trained in using personal protective equipment under 1910.132. There are additional recordkeeping requirements for exposure monitoring and medical surveillance programs. |
| Training link(s): |
| Who: | Employees who have the potential to be exposed to ethylene oxide (EtO) at or above the action level, or above the excursion limit. Also, this standard incorporates by reference 1910.38, 1910.132, and 1910.134, which have additional training requirements. In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance, and the employee is to receive a copy of the physician’s written opinion within fifteen days after the employer receives it. |
| When: | At the time of initial assignment and at least annually thereafter. Also, within fifteen (15) working days after receiving monitoring results, the employer is to notify employees of their exposure level either individually in writing or by posting the results. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer shall make a copy of 1910.1047 and its appendices available to employees. A training certificate is required for employees trained in using personal protective equipment under 1910.132. There are additional recordkeeping requirements for exposure monitoring and medical surveillance programs. |
| Who: | Employees assigned to workplaces where there is exposure to formaldehyde at or above 0.1 ppm. Also, this standard incorporates by reference 1910.132 and 1910.134, which have additional training requirements for employees who wear personal protective equipment or respirators. Also, any person who cleans or launders contaminated protective clothing is to be informed of the hazards of exposure to formaldehyde. In addition, the employer must provide specified information to the physician who is conducting medical surveillance, and the employee is to receive a copy of the physician’s written opinion within fifteen (15) days after the employer receives it. At the time of initial assignment and whenever a new exposure to formaldehyde is introduced. |
| When: | Training is to be repeated at least annually. Also, within fifteen (15) working days after receiving monitoring results, the employer is to notify employees of their exposure level either individually in writing or by posting the results. Also, each time that employees undergo a medical exam by an employer-selected physician, the employer must promptly notify the employees that they have the right to seek a second medical opinion. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer is to maintain a record of the contents of the training program and shall provide, upon request, all materials relating to the program to employees and to the Assistant Secretary and the Director. A training certificate is required for employees trained in using personal protective equipment under 1910.132. There are additional recordkeeping requirements for respirator fit testing, exposure monitoring, and medical surveillance programs. |
| Who: | All employees potentially exposed to methylene chloride. |
| When: | Training is provided prior to or when initially assigned to a job. Retraining is given on an as-needed basis. |
| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. |
| Who: | All employees with occupational exposures to respirable crystalline silica in construction work, except where employee exposure will remain below 25 micrograms per cubic meter of air (25 μg/m3) as an eight-hour time-weighted average under any foreseeable conditions. The employer must include respirable crystalline silica in its written Hazard Communication Program, under 29 CFR 1910.1200(e). Each covered employee must have access to hazard communication labels on containers of crystalline silica and access to corresponding safety data sheets. Each covered employee must be trained according to 1910.1200(h), and such training must address the following respirable crystalline silica hazards: cancer, lung effects, immune system effects, and kidney effects. In addition, the employer must ensure that each covered employee can demonstrate knowledge and understanding of at least the following:
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| When: |
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| Recordkeeping: | No training recordkeeping requirements are specified. However, a copy of 1926.1153 must be readily available without cost to each covered employee. |
| Who: |
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| When: | Train at times indicated in 1926.1207. |
| Recordkeeping: | Document training in accordance with 1926.1207. |
| Who: | Each employee whose work is regulated by 29 CFR 1926 Subpart AA must be provided with training, at no cost to the employee, to ensure that the employee possesses the understanding, knowledge, and skills necessary for the safe performance of the duties assigned under Subpart AA. This training must result in an understanding of the hazards in the permit space and the methods used to isolate, control or in other ways protect employees from these hazards. For those employees not authorized to perform entry rescues, training must result in an understanding of the dangers of attempting such rescues. The training must establish employee proficiency in the duties required by Subpart AA and must introduce new or revised procedures, as necessary, for compliance with Subpart AA. |
| When: | Training must occur:
Also, the employer must introduce new or revised procedures, as necessary, for compliance with Subpart AA. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer must maintain training records to show that the required training has been accomplished. The training records must contain each employee’s name, the name of the trainers, and the dates of training. The documentation must be available for inspection by employees and their authorized representatives, for the period of time the employee is employed by that employer. |
| Who: |
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| When: | Train at times indicated in 1926.1207. In addition, ensure that affected employees practice making permit space rescues before attempting an actual rescue, and at least once every 12 months, by means of simulated rescue operations in which they remove dummies, manikins, or actual persons from the actual permit spaces or from representative permit spaces, except practice rescue is not required where the affected employees properly performed a rescue operation during the last 12 months in the same permit space the authorized entrant will enter, or in a similar permit space. Representative permit spaces must, with respect to opening size, configuration, and accessibility, simulate the types of permit spaces from which rescue is to be performed. |
| Recordkeeping: | Document training in accordance with 1926.1207. |
| Who: | Operators of digger derricks in construction work for telecommunication service, when used for augering holes for poles carrying electric and telecommunication lines, placing and removing the poles, and for handling associated materials to be installed on or removed from the poles. |
| When: | Before being permitted to operate the derrick, training in the operation of the derrick must be provided. In addition, before employees may be permitted to engage in activities under 1910.268, employees must receive proper training in the various precautions and safe practices described in that section; however, where the employer can demonstrate that an employee is already trained in the precautions and safe practices required by 1910.268 prior to employment, training need not be provided to that employee in accordance with that section. |
| Recordkeeping: | The employer must certify that employees have been trained under 1910.268 by preparing a certification record which includes the identity of the person trained, the signature of the employer or the person who conducted the training, and the date the training was completed. The certification record must be prepared at the completion of training and must be maintained on file for the duration of the employee’s employment. |
| Who: | Assembly/disassembly directors must instruct crew members on their tasks, associated hazards, and hazardous positions and locations. |
| When: | Before commencing assembly/disassembly operations, before taking on a different task, or when new personnel is added during operations. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers must train the operator and crew in power line safety. The operator must be trained in the hazards associated with energized equipment, procedures to be followed to properly ground equipment and the limitations of grounding, as well as the safest means of evacuating the equipment. The crane’s remaining crew must be trained to avoid approaching or touching the equipment. |
| When: | Employees must be evaluated to confirm that they understand the information provided in the training, and refresher training must be provided when, based on employee conduct, there is an indication that retraining is necessary. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers must train the operator and crew in power line safety. The operator must be trained in the hazards associated with energized equipment, procedures to be followed to properly ground equipment and the limitations of grounding, as well as the safest means of evacuating the equipment. The crane’s remaining crew must be trained to avoid approaching or touching the equipment. |
| When: | Employees must be evaluated to confirm that they understand the information provided in the training, and refresher training must be provided when, based on employee conduct, there is an indication that retraining is necessary. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | The signal person, operator, and lift director (where there is one) must contact each other prior to the operation and agree on the non-standard hand signals that will be used, when using non-standard hand signals. |
| When: | Prior to the operation, when using non-standard hand signals. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers must train each employee who may be exposed to fall hazards while on, or hoisted by, equipment on the hazards of falling and the requirements for boom walkways; steps, handholds, ladders, grabrails, guardrails and railings; personal fall arrest and fall restraint systems. |
| When: | The employer must assure that each employee has been trained, as necessary, by a competent person. When the employer has reason to believe that any affected employee who has already been trained does not have the understanding and skill required, the employer shall retrain each such employee. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers must train each employee assigned to work on or near the equipment (’’authorized personnel’’) in how to recognize struck-by and pinch/crush hazard areas posed by the rotating superstructure, as well as the meaning behind the markings used. |
| When: | Precautions must be taken when there are accessible areas in which the equipment’s rotating superstructure (whether permanently or temporarily mounted) poses a reasonably foreseeable risk. |
| Recordkeeping: | The paperwork requirements impose on employers a duty to produce and maintain records when controls are implemented and other measures are taken to protect workers from hazards related to cranes and derricks used in construction. The following documents must be on file and available at the job site: Equipment ratings, employee training records, written authorizations from qualified individuals, and qualification program audits. |
| Who: | Materials must be rigged by a qualified rigger when employees are engaged in hooking, unhooking, or guiding the load, or in the initial connection of a load to a component or structure and are within the fall zone. According to 1926.1401, a qualified rigger is a rigger who meets the criteria for a qualified person, and a qualified person means a person who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training and experience, successfully demonstrated the ability to solve/resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project. |
| When: | No training time is specified. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers must ensure that operators are certified, qualified, or licensed. Each operator-in-training must be provided with sufficient training and continuous monitoring to ensure that the limitations established by 1926.1427 and any additional limitations established by the employer are met. |
| When: | Operators must be certified, qualified, or licensed prior to operating the equipment. If an operator is in training, sufficient instruction must be provided prior to equipment operation and an evaluation must be completed to ensure that the employee understands the information. Continuous monitoring must occur while the operator-in-training is operating the equipment. |
| Recordkeeping: | OSHA requires one of four (4) records: a certificate from an accredited crane operator testing organization, documentation of qualification from the employer through an externally-audited employer program, documentation of qualification from the U.S. Military (only applies to employees of Department of Defense or Armed Forces and does not include private contractors), or a license from a state or local government (if that licensing meets the minimum requirements set forth by OSHA). |
| Who: | Employers must ensure that each signal person meets the qualification requirements. These include: knowing and understanding the type of signals used; competence in the application of the type of signals used; basic understanding of equipment operation and limitations including the crane dynamics involved in swinging and stopping loads and boom deflection from hoisting loads; knowing and understanding the relevant requirements of signals, hand signal chart, and signal person qualifications. |
| When: | Each signal person must meets the qualification requirements prior to giving any signals. |
| Recordkeeping: | The signal person must have documentation from a third party qualified evaluator or the employer’s qualified evaluator provides documentation that the individual meets the qualification requirements. |
| Who: | Maintenance and repair personnel must meet the definition of a qualified person with respect to the equipment and maintenance/repair tasks performed. |
| When: | A qualified person must possess a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or have extensive knowledge, training and experience, and successfully demonstrated the ability to solve/ resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers must provide the following training:
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| When: | Employers must evaluate each employee required to be trained under this subpart to confirm that the employee understands the information provided in the training. Refresher training must be provided in relevant topics for each employee when, based on the conduct of the employee or an evaluation of the employee’s knowledge, there is an indication that retraining is necessary. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers must train each operator of a derrick on the safe operation of the equipment including the operational functions of equipment and its use with attachments, unavailable operation procedures, unattended equipment, dangers of distractions, tag-out, verifying controls, storm warning. Section 1926.1427, Operator Qualification and Certification, does not apply. |
| When: | Operators must be trained prior to operating the equipment. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | Employers must train each employee to understand what the markings signify. |
| When: | When hazard areas are marked by a combination of warning signs and high-visibility markings on equipment. Warning signs (such as, “Danger—Swing/Crush Zone”) and high-visibility markings are required when the employer does not choose to erect and maintain control lines, warning lines, railings, or similar barriers to mark the boundaries of hazard areas. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
| Who: | The requirements of 1910.179, except for 1910.179(b)(1), and not the requirements of this Subpart CC, apply to the following equipment when used in construction and permanently installed in a facility: overhead and gantry cranes, including semigantry, cantilever gantry, wall cranes, storage bridge cranes, and others having the same fundamental characteristics. Under 1910.179:
For overhead and gantry cranes that are not permanently installed in a facility must meet various requirements listed at 1926.1438(b)(2). Requirements listed in 1926.1438(b)(2) include, but are not limited to the following sections: 1926.1400 through 1926.1414; 1926.1417 through 1926.1425; 1926.1426(d); 1926.1427 through 1926.1434; 1926.1437; 1926.1439; and 1926.1441. These sections include training requirements at 1926.1400, 1926.1404, 1926.1408, 1926.1410, 1926.1419, 1926.1423, 1926.1424, 1926.1425, 1926.1427, 1926.1427, 1926.1429, 1926.1430, 1926.1436, 1926.1437, and 1926.1441. Refer to those entries. |
| When: | When 1910.179 applies, train crane operators and qualified persons initially or prior to assignment. For overhead and gantry cranes that are not permanently installed in a facility, refer to entries for 1926.1400, 1926.1404, 1926.1408, 1926.1410, 1926.1419, 1926.1423, 1926.1424, 1926.1425, 1926.1427, 1926.1427, 1926.1429, 1926.1430, 1926.1436, 1926.1437, and 1926.1441, to see if there are training time requirements. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required in 1926.1438, but refer to the entries listed above. |
| Who: | Employers must train each operator on the safe operation of the type of equipment the operator will be using. |
| When: | Each operator must be trained prior to operating the equipment. |
| Recordkeeping: | No specific training documentation is required. |
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2026-04-10T05:00:00Z
EPA amends specific oil and gas emission standards
On April 9, 2026, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule that makes technical changes to the emission standards established in March 2024 (2024 Final Rule) for crude oil and natural gas facilities. This rule (2026 Final Rule) amends the requirements for:
- Temporary flaring of associated gas, and
- Vent gas net heating value (NHV) monitoring provisions for flares and enclosed combustion devices (ECDs).
Who’s impacted?
The 2026 Final Rule affects new and existing oil and gas facilities. Specifically, it applies to the regulations for the Crude Oil and Natural Gas source category, including the:
- New Source Performance Standards at 40 CFR 60 Subpart OOOOb, and
- Emission guidelines at 60 Subpart OOOOc.
These emission standards are commonly referred to as OOOOb/c.
What are the changes?
The 2026 Final Rule implements technical changes to the temporary flaring and vent gas NHV monitoring requirements set by the 2024 Final Rule.
Temporary flaring
The rule extends the baseline time limit for temporary flaring of associated gas at well sites in certain situations (like conducting repairs or maintenance) from 24 to 72 hours. Owners and operators must stop temporary flaring as soon as the situation is resolved or the temporary flaring limit is reached (whichever happens first).
It also grants allowances beyond the 72-hour limit if exigent circumstances occur (such as severe weather that prevents safe access to a well site to address an emergency or maintenance issue) and there’s a need to extend duration for repairs, maintenance, or safety issues. Owners and operators must keep records of exigent circumstances and include the information in their annual reports.
NHV monitoring
For new and existing sources, the 2026 Final Rule exempts all flare types (unassisted and assisted) and ECDs from monitoring due to high NHV content, except when inert gases are added to the process streams or for other scenarios that decrease the NHV content of the inlet stream gas. In these cases, EPA requires NHV monitoring via continuous monitoring or the alternative performance test (sampling demonstration) option for all flares and ECDs.
Other significant changes include:
- Replacing the general exemption from NHV monitoring for associated gas for any control device used at well site affected facilities with NHV monitoring requirements,
- Granting operational pauses during weekends and holidays for the consecutive 14-day sampling demonstration requirements (limiting it to no more than 3 operating days from the previous sampling day), and
- Permitting less than 1-hour sampling times for twice daily samples where low or intermittent flow makes it infeasible (as long as owners and operators report the sampling time used and the reason for the reduced time).
The 2026 Final Rule takes effect on June 8, 2026.
Key to remember: EPA’s technical changes to the emission standards for oil and gas facilities apply to temporary flaring provisions and vent gas NHV monitoring requirements.
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsToxic Substances Control Act - EPAToxic Subtances Control Act - EPATSCA ComplianceToxic Substances - EPAEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)EnvironmentalEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-04-13T05:00:00Z
EPA delays TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS reporting timeline again
On April 13, 2026, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule that further delays the submission period for the one-time report required of manufacturers on per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) by the PFAS Reporting and Recordkeeping Rule (PFAS Reporting Rule).
This final rule pushes the starting submission period to either 60 days after the effective date of a future final rule updating the PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027, whichever is earlier.
Who’s impacted?
Established under Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) Section 8(a)(7), the PFAS Reporting Rule (40 CFR Part 705) requires any business that manufactured (including imported) any PFAS or PFAS-containing article between 2011 and 2022 to report. Covered manufacturers and importers must submit information on:
- Chemical identity, uses, and volumes made and processed;
- Byproducts;
- Environmental and health effects;
- Worker exposure; and
- Disposal.
What’s the new timeline?
The opening submission period was moved from April 13, 2026, to either 60 days after the effective date of a future final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027, whichever is earlier.
Most manufacturers have 6 months to submit the report. Small manufacturers reporting only as importers of PFAS-containing articles have 1 year.
| TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS Reporting Rule submission period | ||
|---|---|---|
| Start date | End date | |
| Most manufacturers | 60 days from effective date of final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) | 6 months from start date or July 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) |
| Small manufacturers reporting solely as PFAS article importers | 60 days from effective date of final PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027 (whichever is earlier) | 1 year from start date or January 31, 2028 (whichever is earlier) |
Why the delay?
In November 2025, the agency proposed updates to the PFAS Reporting Rule. EPA has delayed the reporting period to give the agency time to issue a final rule (expected later this year).
Key to remember: EPA has delayed the starting submission deadline for the TSCA Section 8(a)(7) PFAS Reporting Rule from April 2026 to no later than January 2027.
NewsIndustry NewsWaste GeneratorsWaste IdentificationWaste/HazWasteWasteEnvironmentalIn-Depth ArticleSolid WasteEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2025-09-22T05:00:00Z
The new rules of waste: How 2025 legislation is reshaping corporate environmental compliance
In 2025, sweeping changes to waste laws across the U.S. are forcing companies to rethink packaging, disposal, and reporting practices. From statewide bans on single-use plastics to expanded Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) programs and chemical recycling reclassification, these updates carry significant compliance implications for corporate Environmental Health and Safety (EHS) teams.
Single-use plastics: New bans and restrictions
Several states have enacted new bans on polystyrene foam containers, plastic straws, and produce bags:
- California SB 1046: As of January 1, 2025, expanded polystyrene (EPS) food containers are banned unless they meet a 25% recycling rate. Pre-checkout bags must be compostable or made of recycled paper.
- Delaware SB 51: Foam containers and plastic stirrers are banned unless requested by the customer.
- Oregon SB 543: Bans EPS containers and food packaging with intentionally added PFAS.
- Virginia: No food vendor may use EPS containers starting July 1, 2025.
Compliance tip: Audit your packaging inventory and supplier certifications. Ensure alternatives meet compostability or recyclability standards.
Extended producer responsibility (EPR): Expanding nationwide
EPR laws now apply in several states. These laws require companies to help pay for recycling and report packaging data.
- Maryland SB 901: Allows multiple Producer Responsibility Organizations (PROs) and mandates cost-sharing for recycling.
- Washington SB 5284: Targets consumer packaging with compliance deadlines starting in 2028.
- Colorado: Unregistered producers are banned from selling covered products as of July 1, 2025.
- California SB 54: Revised draft rules released in May 2025 include new compliance dates and exemptions.
Compliance tip: Register with your state’s PRO, submit packaging data, and prepare for fee schedules. Track deadlines and exemptions closely.
Chemical recycling: Regulatory reclassification and impacts
States like Texas and Pennsylvania now classify chemical recycling as manufacturing, not waste management. This shift encourages investment but also changes permitting and emissions reporting obligations.
Compliance tip: If your facility uses or contracts chemical recycling, review air and water permits. Ensure alignment with manufacturing regulations.
Per and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS): Phase-outs and hazardous waste updates
More states are banning PFAS in packaging and cookware:
- Minnesota, Oregon, Rhode Island, and New Mexico have banned or phased out PFAS in consumer products.
- Illinois SB 727: Aligns PFAS limits with EPA standards.
Compliance tip: Update product safety data sheets (SDS) and conduct PFAS audits. Prepare for new reporting under TSCA Section 8(a)(7), including data on manufacture, use, and disposal.
Circular economy and composting: Recent mandates
States are setting zero-waste goals and requiring composting:
- Hawaii HB 750: Launches a statewide recycling needs assessment.
- Maine LD 1065: Requires large food waste generators to compost by 2030.
Compliance Tip: Evaluate organics diversion programs and infrastructure. Consider partnerships with composting facilities.
EHS teams: What to do now
- Map your regulatory exposure: Identify which state laws apply to your operations.
- Engage with PROs: Register, report, and participate in rulemaking.
- Train staff: Ensure procurement, operations, and legal teams understand new requirements.
- Audit packaging and waste streams: Replace banned materials and optimize recycling.
- Monitor emerging legislation: Stay ahead of new bills and compliance deadlines.
Key to remember: Staying compliant in 2025 means more than avoiding fines. EHS teams must lead efforts to meet new waste laws and support sustainability goals.
NewsGreenhouse GasesWaste/HazWasteToxic Substances Control Act - EPASafe Drinking WaterWater AnalysisWater ProgramsWater QualityMaximum Contaminant LevelsWalking Working SurfacesMonthly Roundup VideoCAA ComplianceSolid WasteCWA ComplianceLaddersEnglishUSAHeat StressIndustry NewsHeat and Cold ExposureSafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyWasteMaritime SafetyEnvironmentalFocus AreaWater MonitoringVolatile Organic CompoundsAir ProgramsStationary Emission SourcesVideo
EHS Monthly Round Up - April 2026
In this April 2026 roundup video, we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news.
Hi everyone! Welcome to the monthly news roundup video, where we’ll review the most impactful environmental health and safety news. Let’s take a look at what happened over the past month.
OSHA revised its National Emphasis Program on heat-related hazards. Going forward, the agency will prioritize inspections in 55 high-risk industries in indoor and outdoor work settings. The program remains in effect for 5 years from its April 10 effective date.
An OSHA proposed rule seeks to eliminate the November 18, 2036, deadline in the Walking-Working Surfaces standard that would require all fixed ladders extending more than 24 feet above a lower level to be equipped with personal fall arrest systems or ladder safety systems. OSHA also seeks feedback on nine specific questions related to the proposal, with comments due on June 5.
On April 17, OSHA revoked its House Falls in Marine Terminals standard at 1917.41. The agency said that because most cargo has been containerized and is moved by cranes, the standard is no longer necessary to protect employees.
Turning to environmental news, an EPA final rule further delays the submission period for the one-time PFAS report required of manufacturers. It pushes the start of the submission period to either 60 days after the effective date of a future final rule updating the PFAS Reporting Rule or January 31, 2027, whichever comes first.
An EPA final rule makes technical changes to the emission standards established in March 2024 for crude oil and natural gas facilities. The changes take effect June 8.
EPA published the draft 6th Contaminant Candidate List for the next group of contaminants to be considered for regulation under the Safe Drinking Water Act. The proposed list designates microplastics and pharmaceuticals as priority contaminant groups for the first time.
And finally, EPA plans to make significant changes to coal combustion residuals requirements. A proposed rule published April 13 would revise the regulations governing the disposal of coal combustion residuals in landfills and surface impoundments, as well as the beneficial use of coal combustion residuals.
Thanks for tuning in to the monthly news roundup. We’ll see you next month!
NewsClosuresIndustry NewsIndustry NewsWaste/HazWasteWasteEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)Waste ManagementEnvironmentalSolid WasteEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-04-16T05:00:00Z
EPA proposes major changes to coal combustion residuals rules
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a proposed rule on April 13, 2026, to revise the existing regulations governing the disposal of coal combustion residuals (CCR) in landfills and surface impoundments as well as the beneficial use of CCR.
Who’s impacted?
The proposed rule affects coal-fired electric utilities and independent power producers subject to the CCR disposal and beneficial use regulations at 40 CFR Part 257.
What are the changes?
Significant changes the EPA proposes include:
- Adding an option for facilities to certify the closure of legacy CCR surface impoundments by CCR removal that were closed before November 8, 2024, under regulatory oversight;
- Expanding the eligibility criteria for facilities to defer CCR closure requirements until site-specific determinations are made for legacy surface impoundments that were closed before November 8, 2024, under regulatory oversight;
- Exempting CCR dewatering structures (used to dewater CCR waste for the disposal of CCR elsewhere) from federal CCR regulations (Part 257);
- Rescinding all CCR management unit (CCRMU) requirements or revising the existing CCRMU regulations;
- Allowing permit authorities to make site-specific determinations regarding certain requirements during permitting for CCR units complying with federal CCR groundwater monitoring, corrective action, and closure requirements under a federal or an approved-state CCR permit; and
- Revising the beneficial use requirements by:
- Removing the environmental demonstration requirement for non-roadway use of more than 12,400 tons of unencapsulated CCR; and
- Excluding these beneficial uses from federal CCR regulations (Part 257):
- CCR used in cement manufacturing at cement kilns,
- Flue gas desulfurization (FGD) gypsum used in agriculture, and
- FGD gypsum used in wallboard.
Key to remember: EPA plans to make significant amendments to the coal combustion residuals requirements.
NewsAir QualityIndustry NewsIndustry NewsAir ProgramsEnvironmental Protection Agency (EPA)Hazardous Air PollutantsCAA ComplianceEnvironmentalFocus AreaEnglishAir ProgramsStationary Emission SourcesUSA
2026-04-02T05:00:00Z
EPA releases final NESHAP for chemical manufacturing area sources
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) published a final rule on April 1, 2026, amending the National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP) for Chemical Manufacturing Area Sources (CMAS). The NESHAP controls hazardous air pollutant (HAP) emissions from facilities that manufacture a range of chemicals and products, such as inorganic chemicals, plastics, and synthetic rubber.
Who’s impacted?
The final rule applies to nine area source categories in the chemical manufacturing sector that are regulated by the CMAS NESHAP (40 CFR 63 Subpart VVVVVV).
What are the changes?
EPA’s final rule:
- Establishes leak detection and repair requirements for equipment leaks and heat exchange systems in organic HAP service,
- Adds detectable emissions monitoring standards for pressure vessels in organic HAP service and emission management practice standards for pressure relief devices (PRDs) in organic HAP service,
- Prohibits closed vent systems in organic HAP service from bypassing an air pollution control device (APCD), and
- Requires recurring performance testing of non-flare APCDs to demonstrate compliance with process vent and storage tank provisions.
The final rule also mandates electronic reporting for notifications of compliance status (NOCs), performance test reports, and periodic reports. Facilities must submit these reports through the Compliance and Emissions Data Reporting Interface (CEDRI) on EPA’s Central Data Exchange.
What didn’t change?
Significantly, the final rule doesn’t add previously proposed regulations for area sources that use ethylene oxide (EtO) to produce materials described by code 325 of the North American Industry Classification System (NAICS).
EPA states that it intends to address the regulation of EtO from area sources and major sources in one final action.
What are the compliance timelines?
Existing facilities must comply with the amendments by April 1, 2029.
New facilities (those that begin construction or reconstruction after January 22, 2025) have to comply with the changes by April 1, 2026, or upon startup, whichever is later.
Additionally, facilities must start electronically submitting:
- Performance tests by June 1, 2026;
- NOCs by August 31, 2026; and
- Periodic reports by April 1, 2029.
Key to remember: EPA’s final HAP emissions rule for chemical manufacturing area sources adds new requirements for certain processing equipment and systems.
Most Popular Highlights In Transportation
NewsEnglishFleet SafetyChange NoticesChange NoticeDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierOffice of the Secretary of TransportationFocus AreaAlcohol testing - Motor CarrierTransportationUSA
2026-05-11T05:00:00Z
DOT Final Rule: Procedures for Transportation Workplace Drug and Alcohol Testing Programs
The U.S. Department of Transportation revises its drug and alcohol testing procedures to require a directly observed urine collection in situations where oral fluid tests are currently required but cannot be conducted because oral fluid testing is not yet available. The rule also updates terminology in these procedures consistent with Executive Order (E.O.) 14168, Defending Women from Gender Ideology Extremism and Restoring Biological Truth to the Federal Government.
DATES: This rule is effective on June 10, 2026. Published in the Federal Register May 11, 2026, page 25507.
View final rule.
| §40.65 What does the collector check for when the employee presents a urine specimen? | ||
| (d) | Added | View text |
| §40.67 When and how is a directly observed urine collection conducted? | ||
| (g) | Revised | View text |
| (h) | Revised | View text |
| §40.69 How is a monitored urine collection conducted? | ||
| (c) | Revised | View text |
| (d) | Revised | View text |
| §40.145 [Amended] | ||
| (h)(1)(ii) | Revised | View text |
Previous text
§40.67 When and how is a directly observed urine collection conducted?
* * * *
(g) As the collector, you must ensure that the observer is the same gender as the employee.
(1) You must never permit an opposite gender person to act as the observer.
(2) The observer can be a different person from the collector and need not be a qualified collector.
(3) If a same gender collector cannot be found or in circumstances of nonbinary or transgender employees:
(i) If the employer has a standing order to allow oral fluid testing in such situations, the collector will follow that order;
(ii) If there is no standing order from the employer, the collector must contact the DER and either conduct an oral fluid test if the collection site is able to do so, or send the employee to a collection site acceptable to the employer for the oral fluid test.
(h) As the collector, if someone else is to observe the collection (e.g., in order to ensure a same gender observer), you must verbally instruct that person to follow procedures at paragraphs (i) and (j) of this section. If you, the collector, are the observer, you too must follow these procedures.
§40.69 How is a monitored urine collection conducted?
* * * *
(c) As the collector, you must ensure that the monitor is the same gender as the employee, unless the monitor is a medical professional (e.g., nurse, doctor, physician’s assistant, technologist, or technician licensed or certified to practice in the jurisdiction in which the collection takes place). The monitor can be a different person from the collector and need not be a qualified collector.
(d) As the collector, if someone else is to monitor the collection (e.g., in order to ensure a same gender monitor), you must verbally instruct that person to follow the procedures of paragraphs (d) and (e) of this section. If you, the collector, are the monitor, you must follow these procedures.
§40.145 On what basis does the MRO verify test results involving adulteration or substitution?
* * * *
(h)(1)(ii) Assertion by the employee that his or her personal characteristics (e.g., with respect to race, gender, weight, diet, working conditions) are responsible for the substituted result does not, in itself, constitute a legitimate medical explanation. To make a case that there is a legitimate medical explanation, the employee must present evidence showing that the cited personal characteristics actually result in the physiological production of urine meeting the creatinine and specific gravity criteria of §40.88(b).
NewsIndustry NewsMedical review officer (MRO) - Motor CarrierFleet SafetyDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishTransportationUSA
2026-05-14T05:00:00Z
Excuses that won’t make the cut for failed drug tests
Medical review officers (MROs) hear some wild excuses from drivers regarding failed DOT drug tests.
Some excuses may be valid and investigated by the MRO during the verification process. For example, a driver may refer the MRO to a family physician about a legally prescribed medication that showed up in the drug panel.
However, some explanations provided by drivers aren’t viewed as reasonable under the regulations. Consider the following commonly used excuses that MROs aren’t permitted to entertain.
Tested in error
- Drivers may claim that their employer initiated a test that shouldn’t have been done, such as: Requesting a post-accident test when the criteria in 382.303 weren’t met,
- Misidentifying a driver as the subject of a random test, or
- Sending a driver for a reasonable suspicion test without grounds.
MROs are told in 49 CFR 40.151(c) that it’s not their role to determine whether the test should have occurred. A positive test result stands for anyone holding a commercial driver’s license (CDL), even if the employer made a mistake in sending them for the collection.
Drugged by someone
In some instances, the driver doesn’t contest the lab result. They just claim they unknowingly were exposed to the drug, and it’s not their fault.
Stories might include:
- Someone slipped a drug into a drink at a party,
- The driver ingested a marijuana brownie without realizing it, or
- The driver traveled in a closed car with several people smoking drugs.
Stories of passive or unknowing ingestion can’t be verified. Even if true, they don’t present a legitimate medical explanation, so the MRO can’t deem the test negative.
Was set up
Drivers may claim that the specimen isn’t theirs, or someone tampered with it at the clinic.
For example, there may be allegations made by the driver that the collector left the area or left open specimen containers where others could access them.
The regulations are clear: It’s not the MRO’s role to investigate claims that collection procedures weren’t followed by the clinic. The MRO only works with what is reflected in the chain of custody form, and all other accusations will be dismissed.
Took a second test
Some drivers take it upon themselves to take a second drug test outside of DOT to prove their innocence. For example, a driver tells the MRO that a personal physician performed a urine drug test that was sent to a lab, and it came back negative. The MRO must ignore this second test result. It isn’t evidence to sway the result.
Exposed to a cleaning product
An adulterated test result is often the result of soap, bleach, or disinfectant used to tamper with a urine specimen. A driver might claim the chemicals wound up in the urine through exposure to cleaning products (e.g., absorbed through the skin or inhaled). According to the regulations, there are no physiological means through which these substances can enter a specimen.
Key to remember: MROs won’t consider tall tales when verifying failed drug tests. They are given specific instructions by DOT: Only consider valid medical explanations — no matter how convincing the driver’s story might be.
NewsIndustry NewsFleet Safety150 air-mile radius exceptionHours of ServiceFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleEnglishTransportationUSA
2022-08-29T05:00:00Z
The 150 air-mile short-haul exemptions: Widely used and widely misused
The 150 air-mile exemptions, which are in the regulations at 395.1(e)(1) and (2), allow a driver to use a time record in place of a log, provided that certain conditions are met. While this is possibly the most widely used hours-of-service exemption, it may be the most commonly misused exemption, as well.
The basics of logging exemptions
To be able to use this logging exemption in 395.1(e)(1), the driver must:
- Stay within 150 air-miles of the work reporting location for the day (draw a 150 air-mile radius circle around the work reporting location for the day — the driver must stay within this circle),
- Be back to — and released from — the work reporting location for his/her 8- or 10-hour break within 14 hours, and
- Include the starting and ending times for the day and the total hours on duty on the time record for the day.
The company must retain the time record and have it available for inspection for six months.
| Need more info? View our ezExplanation on the 150 air-mile exception. |
What if the driver goes too far or works too many hours?
If the driver cannot meet the terms of the exemption (he or she goes too far or works too many hours), the driver must complete a regular driver’s log for the day as soon as the exemption no longer applies.
If the driver has had to complete a log 8 or fewer days out of the last 30 days, the driver can use a paper log for the day. If the driver had to complete a log more than 8 days out of the last 30 days, the driver needs to use an electronic log for the day (unless one of the ELD exemptions applies, such as operating a vehicle older than model year 2000).
30-minute break exemption
When a property-carrying driver is operating under the 150 air-mile exemption, the driver is also exempt from having to take the required 30-minute break (see 395.3(a)(3)(ii)).
If the driver began the day as a 150 air-mile driver and has driven more than 8 consecutive hours without a break, and something unexpected happens and the driver can no longer use the 150 air-mile exemption, the driver must stop and immediately take the 30-minute break as well as start logging. If the driver went outside of the 150 air-mile area before the driver had 8 hours of driving without a break from driving, the driver would be expected to take the break at the appropriate time.
Common myths
Here are some of the common myths and misunderstandings about the 150 air-mile exemption:
- The driver must have the time records in the vehicle. Myth. The driver simply needs to explain to an officer during a roadside inspection that he/she does not have logs due to operating under the 150 air-mile exemption and that the required time records are back at the carrier’s office (just telling the officer, “I don’t have any logs” will lead to a violation, so the driver needs to know to provide the full explanation).
- The driver must log the previous seven days if he/she had been using this exemption and suddenly can’t. Myth. If the driver cannot use the exemption on one particular day, that is the only day the driver must use a regular log (either paper or electronic).
- Passenger-carrying drivers and drivers hauling hazardous materials cannot use this exemption. Myth. There are no restrictions on the use of this exemption, so any commercial driver can use it.
- A driver that crosses state lines cannot use this exemption. Myth. As this exemption appears in the Federal Motor Carrier Administration (FMCSA) regulations, it can be used by interstate drivers.
- Only drivers that operate out of a “company terminal” can use the 150 air-mile exemption. Myth. As long as the driver makes it back to the work reporting location for the day within the appropriate number of hours, the driver can use the exemption.
- Drivers that move from one jobsite to another every few weeks cannot use this exemption. Myth. If a driver that normally uses this exemption switches work reporting locations, the day the driver switches work reporting locations is the only day the driver cannot use the exemption.
- Drivers covered by this exemption are also exempt from the driver qualification (licensing and medical cards), driving, and vehicle inspection requirements. Myth. The only rules the driver is exempt from are the logging requirement in 395.8 and the 30-minute break requirement in 395.3.
- The driver cannot drive more than 150 miles for the day. Myth. The driver can drive as many miles as he/she wants to or needs to, as long as the driver stays within the 150 air-mile radius circle and gets back to the work reporting location within the appropriate number of hours.
- If a 150 air-mile driver gets into a vehicle with an ELD, the driver must use it. Myth. The carrier can have the driver log in and have the driver entered into the system as an “exempt driver,” or the carrier can request that the driver not log into the device and then attach a comment to the unassigned driving time generated by the driver’s movements. The comment would need to explain that the driver using the vehicle was a 150 air-mile driver who submitted a time record. It is up to the carrier to decide which option to use. If stopped for a roadside inspection, the driver will need to be able to explain to the inspector that he/she is an exempt driver using the 150 air-mile exemption, so using the electronic log is not required.
What’s different with the ‘150 air-mile non-CDL property-carrying drivers’
The 150 air-mile exemption at 395.1(e)(2) only applies to drivers that: Operate property-carrying vehicles that do not require a CDL to operate, and Stay within the 150 air-miles of their work reporting location.
If the driver stays within the 150 air-mile radius of the work reporting location, and returns to the work reporting location within 14 hours on 5 of the last 7 days, and 16 hours on 2 of the last seven days, the driver is allowed to use a time record in place of a log.
If the driver does not meet the terms of the exception, the driver will need to complete a log for the day. If the driver had to log more than 8 days out of the last 30 days, the driver will need to use an electronic log for the day. All of the other issues discussed above would apply to these drivers as well.
Managing the use
If you have drivers that use these exemptions, you will need to check time records to make sure they are complying with the appropriate time limits. You will also need to check movement records to verify that the drivers using these exemptions are staying within the mandated area (within 150 air-miles of the work reporting location for the day).
If a driver is over the hours limit, or has gone too far, you need to verify that the submitted a log for the day, either paper or electronic, depending on how many days the driver had to log out of the previous 30 days.
Verifying compliance is important
During an audit, if it is discovered that your drivers are using these exemptions incorrectly, you will be cited for not having drivers’ logs when required. Each day this occurred will be another violation, so the fine could be rather large if you are not managing the use of these exemptions!
NewsIndustry NewsHazmat SafetyHazmat: HighwayFocus AreaIn-Depth ArticleHazmat EnforcementEnglishTransportationUSA
2022-12-27T06:00:00Z
Placarding responsibility – Whose is it?
Many shippers are unaware of their responsibility to provide placards to drivers, but the responsibility shifts as soon as the driver hits the road.
Check the regulations
According to Section 172.506 of the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR), a shipper offering a hazardous material for transportation by highway must provide the motor carrier with the required placards for the material being offered. The shipper must offer the placards to the carrier prior to, or at the same time as, the material is offered for transportation — unless the vehicle is already placarded for the hazmat.
Section 172.506 also states that no motor carrier may transport a hazardous material in a motor vehicle unless the required placards for the hazmat are affixed to the vehicle. Before transport, the driver is responsible for displaying the required placards for all the hazmat that is on the vehicle.
Avoid issues with shippers
Many trailers are equipped with flip placards that represent most classes of hazardous materials but without adequate training, shippers may not understand their responsibility to provide the driver with the required placards. If a driver arrives and the shipper fails to provide placards, the driver should contact dispatch for additional instructions or drive to a truck stop to secure the necessary placards. The driver becomes responsible for placards as soon as the trailer enters a public highway, so train your drivers to temporarily refuse the shipment until the proper placards can be obtained. If necessary, the driver must bobtail or leave empty before driving to pick up placards.
Another common placarding question with shippers involves combination loads. If a driver arrives at a shipper’s location and is already transporting a hazardous material below the placarding threshold, is the shipper required to provide placards for the combination load on the trailer? In this scenario, the driver already has 600 pounds of a Class 8 corrosive material on the trailer, and the shipper is offering an additional 500 pounds of the same commodity. The regulations state that the shipper is only required to provide placards for the commodity that is being offered, not for the aggregate weight of both shipments. In this scenario, the driver is responsible for providing placards since it involves a combination load.
The Hazardous Materials Regulations are complex, especially for newer employees. Drivers that can speak “hazmat” to shippers often secure additional business, so be sure to train your drivers and give them the confidence to have impactful conversations with shippers.
Key to remember: Carry extra placards in case a shipper is unable to supply the required placards or a combination of hazmat on the vehicle requires different placards.
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsFleet SafetyDriver qualificationsMedical waivers and exemptions - Motor CarrierFocus AreaEnglishTransportationUSA
2021-09-08T05:00:00Z
Implanted defibrillators still a no-go for drivers
The FMCSA is still accepting medical exemption applications from truck and bus drivers with implantable cardioverter defibrillators (ICDs) — and is continuing to deny them.
The agency has been taking ICD exemption applications for a decade but to this date has never granted one.
Disqualifying
Under 49 CFR §391.41(b)(4) and accompanying guidance, ICDs are disqualifying due to the risk the driver might faint when the ICD fires an electrical pulse.
Nevertheless, the FMCSA continues to accept applications for exemptions from the rule and says it will continue to weigh each application on its merits. A driver who receives an exemption would be able to operate a commercial vehicle in interstate commerce.
In a July 23 notice, the agency wrote that it “has received and carefully evaluated many ICD exemption application requests [but] thus far the agency has been unable to conclude that granting an exemption to any of the applicants would achieve [an acceptable] level of safety.”
The only exception came in 2015, when a driver was authorized to drive in interstate commerce because his ICD was disabled.
What should drivers do?
Drivers with ICDs (or any other disqualifying medical condition) may apply for an FMCSA medical exemption using the procedures outlined in Part 381, Subpart C, but they should be realistic in their expectations. The FMCSA is unlikely to grant an ICD exemption anytime soon.
Other options:
- Check with the state to see if it’s possible to be medically certified for in-state-only driving. Some states offer their own exemptions and are more lenient than FMCSA.
- Drive only in areas where medical certification is not required. Under federal standards, operating a commercial vehicle in an area with restricted access (such as a fenced lot) does not require medical certification.
What about pacemakers?
Pacemakers are similar to ICDs but only send low-energy electrical pulses to the heart, while ICDs are more powerful. Pacemakers are not disqualifying and drivers who have them may be medically certified without seeking an exemption.
Key to remember: The FMCSA is taking exemption applications from drivers with implanted defibrillators but to this date has never granted one. Employees with ICDs have limited options to become certified to drive.
NewsTraining & DevelopmentIn-Depth ArticleUSAHR ManagementEnglishTalent Management & RecruitingAssociate Benefits & CompensationDiscriminationGender DiscriminationDiscriminationTitle VII (The Civil Rights Act of 1964)Industry NewsRecruiting and hiringRecruiting and hiringInterviewingHR GeneralistFocus AreaFleet OperationsAssociate RelationsTransportationHuman Resources
2026-05-05T05:00:00Z
Stinky hiring process soils waste management company’s efforts to fill garbage truck driver role
When a hiring manager tells a qualified female job applicant to “think carefully” and “talk to her husband” before accepting a job as a garbage truck driver, it stinks of sex discrimination.
The U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission responded by dumping a lawsuit on the employer. In April 2026, the EEOC announced that a nationwide waste management company will pay $200,000 to settle a sex discrimination in hiring lawsuit.
According to the EEOC’s lawsuit, in May 2020, the female job candidate applied to work for the company as a garbage truck driver based out of Springfield, Missouri. During the interview, company managers told the applicant that female drivers hadn’t worked out in the past. They went on to say she should carefully consider whether she wanted the position because the company would have to build a locker room with a shower for female drivers if she were hired.
The EEOC alleged that when the applicant followed up and said she wanted the job, the company rejected her application and hired a less-qualified male for the position.
The company didn’t have any female drivers at the time. The suit also alleged that since at least March 2020, the company routinely failed to hire qualified female applicants for driver positions because of their sex.
“When employers make hiring decisions based on sex, rather than qualifications, both the employer and the applicants suffer,” said Andrea G. Baran, regional attorney for the EEOC’s St. Louis District.
This alleged conduct violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which prohibits sex discrimination in employment.
Where did this company go wrong?
The company had a history of not hiring female employees — a practice not looked kindly upon by the EEOC. The waste management company also made several key errors during the hiring process, such as:
- It assumed household gender roles by telling the female applicant to “talk to her husband” about her job possibility. That line of thinking is not only archaic; it violates Title VII by making sex-based assumptions.
- The managers implied that creating a shower space for her would be a burden to the company wreaks of discriminatory language. It basically says hiring a female would be a problem.
- Hiring a less-than-qualified male applicant made it implicit that she wasn’t hired because of her sex.
What should other employers do?
While it’s important to learn about a prospective employee, companies could face liability if they ask the wrong questions during an interview. Before conducting interviews, employers should have a script of safe questions. Asking the same questions of all candidates not only helps to compare them equally, it also minimizes the possibility of slipping up and saying something improper.
Interviewers can ask general questions to help determine if a candidate can perform the essential functions of a particular job, such as:
- What kind of job experience do you have?
- What aspects of your current job or previous jobs do you consider most crucial?
- Of all the work you’ve done, what have been your biggest successes?
- What would you change about your current job?
- What aspects do you like best about your current job? Least?
- What are you looking for in your next job?
Key to remember: Employers must dump off-limit topics, questions, and “trashy” comments during the interview process, or they could find themselves hauled into court.
Most Popular Highlights In Human Resources
NewsIndustry NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)USAHR ManagementEnglishFocus AreaHuman Resources
2023-09-06T05:00:00Z
Appellate court sided with employee's (almost) 3-year-delayed FMLA claim
Back in October 2018, Laffon had a medical emergency and needed some time off under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA).
Her leave lasted until November 15. Ten days after she returned to work, on November 26, her employer terminated her.
She sued, arguing that the employer retaliated against her because of her FMLA leave.
The catch? She didn't bring the suit until almost three years later.
No link between leave and termination
In court, the employer argued that there was no causal link between Laffon taking FMLA leave and her termination. Although the court documents aren't robust, they do reveal that the employer indicated that Laffon's allegations didn't show that her taking FMLA leave was a factor in the decision to terminate her. The documents showed only that the termination chronologically followed her leave.
The court agreed with the employer. It also agreed that Laffon failed to allege a willful violation of the FMLA, which would allow her to benefit from the FMLA's three-year statute of limitations.
Laffon appealed the case to the Ninth Circuit.
Statute of limitations
Under the FMLA, employees have two years from the date of the last event constituting the alleged violation for which they can bring a claim.
Those two years are extended to three years if the employer's actions were "willful." This means that an employee must show that the employer either knew or showed reckless disregard for whether its conduct violated the FMLA.
Ruling overturned
Fast forward to August 2023, when the Ninth Circuit reversed the lower court's decision. It indicated that, based on Laffon's amended complaint and liberally construing the law, her allegations establish that her leave was causally connected to her termination and that the employer's action (her termination) was willful.
Glymph v. CT Corporation Systems, No. 22-35735, Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals, August 22, 2023.
Key to remember: Terminating an employee soon after returning from FMLA leave is risky, unless there is a clear, well-documented, non-leave-related reason. Case documents did not show such a clear reason, which can also increase the risk of a willful finding. Employees have time to file claims, even years.
NewsHuman Resource ManagementHuman Resource ManagementEmployee RelationsFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementEnglishHuman ResourcesIndustry NewsEmployee RelationsHR GeneralistAssociate RelationsCommunication ToolsFocus AreaUSA
2026-05-12T05:00:00Z
What does your FMLA process look like?
Administering employee leave under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) basically involves a process that starts when an employee puts the employer on notice of the need for leave and (hopefully) ends when the employee returns to work.
Beyond the compliance requirements, employers can help make the FMLA process more or less challenging for employees and for themselves. If, for example, a process involves handing an employee 40 pages of FMLA-related documents without any explanation, it might be overwhelming for the employee and inefficient in the long run for the employer.
8 steps to help smooth out the FMLA process
Employers might look at their FMLA process and see if there’s room for improvement. Ideas can include the following:
- Walk through the process. Talk with the employee so they know what to expect and when. Have conversations and ask if the employee has any questions. It never hurts to ask, “What can we do to help?” or something to that effect along the way.
- Consider the factors of each situation. Employees who need leave are usually in a stressful situation, even if the reason for leave is happily welcoming a new child. They often aren’t familiar with the nuances of the FMLA, so it’s new territory for them. A bit of empathy goes a long way.
- Follow through. Provide employees with answers to any questions or glitches in the process. While employees might have 15 days to gather a certification, for example, meeting that deadline can be challenging in some situations. If it’s missed, talk to the employees so they understand why.
- Provide gentle reminders. While it’s not technically required, if deadlines are coming up, gently remind employees.
- Use technology to your advantage. If your system enables employees to access the process and its parts from their mobile device, all the better; if that’s how an employee would prefer to proceed, great!
- Overcommunicate rather than under-communicate. It’s better to say more than less when it comes to explaining how the FMLA process works and what’s expected. Ask employees which method they prefer to receive information. If, for example, you prefer to make phone calls, but an employee seldom accepts phone calls, both you and the employee can be frustrated.
- Have templates for letters and forms. Using templates makes it easier to recognize and review information or explain something to the employee. This can also help ensure you treat all similarly situated employees equivalently.
- Document the process. Write down the FMLA process and share it with managers, at least at a high level. Managers don’t need to become FMLA experts, but they might not realize all that’s involved in the FMLA process, and things might get a little easier once they understand. Employees can benefit from such a document, as well.
Because FMLA leave is very personal, employees who have a bad leave experience might consider changing employers or sharing their experience with coworkers, making recruiting and retention more challenging.
Key to remember: Taking a few steps beyond compliance in FMLA leave management can help make the process easier for both employers and employees.
NewsIndustry NewsHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Associate RelationsEnglishUSAHR ManagementFocus AreaHuman Resources
2026-05-14T05:00:00Z
How much FMLA leave do employees get when they go from full- to part-time work?
Eligible employees get 12 of their workweeks of job-protected unpaid leave in a 12-month leave year under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA). When employees take that leave intermittently or on a reduced schedule, employers like to look at the 12 weeks as 480 hours. This is fine as long as the employee works 40 hours per week.
If employees switch from full-time to part-time work, employers might wonder how that affects the 480 hours of FMLA leave.
The change details are key
How much FMLA leave employees get when their schedule changes will depend on:
- Who made the change,
- Why they made the change, and
- When they made the change.
If, for example, an employee normally worked 40 hours per week, but is now moving to a 24-hour per week schedule, that change would result in the employee having 288 hours of FMLA leave, not 480 hours. The employee still gets 12 FMLA weeks, though.
The FMLA regulations say that, if the employer has made a permanent or long-term change in the employee's schedule (for reasons other than FMLA, and before the notice of need for FMLA leave), the hours worked under the new schedule are to be used for making this calculation.
Therefore, if all of the following are met, the employer could use the new, 24-hour workweek (288 hours of leave) as a basis for how much FMLA leave the employee gets:
- The employer made the change to shorten the employee’s schedule,
- The decision had nothing to do with FMLA leave, and
- The change was made before the employee needed FMLA leave.
If, however, the schedule change was because of FMLA leave, and it was made after the employee began taking FMLA leave, the employer must use the old schedule of 480 hours of FMLA leave.
Employers and employees might agree to make a schedule change, and that would be fine, as long as the employer ends up making the employee’s desired change.
If an employee has been taking FMLA leave and subsequently wants a shorter schedule, the employer may not decrease the employee’s hours of FMLA leave. The employer would need to use the old schedule.
New leave year reset
When a new 12-month leave year begins, and an employee first puts the employer on notice of the need for leave, the employer would treat it as a new leave request. At that time, one could argue that the schedule change was made before the employee asked for leave.
Key to remember: Whether employers may reduce the amount of FMLA leave employees get when they reduce their schedules will depend on who made the change, why, and when.
NewsFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)HR ManagementEnglishHuman ResourcesIndustry NewsWage and HourWage and HourHours WorkedHR GeneralistFair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)Non-Exempt employees Associate RelationsFocus AreaUSA
2025-01-16T06:00:00Z
Denying employees work access while on leave
Eligible employees may take up to 12 weeks of leave under the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA). Employers may not require employees to work during FMLA leave. If an employee does any work, employers may not count that time as FMLA leave.
Particularly for extended periods of leave, employers might want to ensure employees don’t do any work by cutting off access to it. Otherwise, employers must track the time employees spend working and the time they spend on leave.
Tracking leave
For hourly (nonexempt) employees, employers must pay employees for any hours worked and keep track of that time. If employees work remotely, they might be required to track and report their work hours.
For salaried (exempt) employees, employers don’t have to track their work hours, but must still keep accurate records of the time spent on FMLA leave.
Blocking access
To avoid non-compliance risks with tracking leaves, employers might choose to cut employees’ work access while on extended leave. This can include not only access to the physical workplace but also access to the virtual workplace, including emails and messages. Someone from IT might need to be involved.
If employers don’t want all communications shut down, they could work with employees to identify other means of communication, such as a personal email or phone number. That way, employees can continue to share information such as their intended return date. Employers should also ensure that important messages get through.
If access is not cut off, employers need to make sure that employees know that they should not work during leave and that there could be consequences for doing so.
Policies help
To help ensure consistency, employers should have well-communicated policies on not working during leave and what employees can expect. A well-written and communicated policy can:
- Help employees feel like they are not being punished by being banned from work,
- Show that employers take FMLA leave seriously, and
- Prohibit supervisors from asking employees to work while on leave.
If an employee violates the policy and does any work during leave, employers can look at it as a policy violation and apply their applicable discipline.
Key to remember: Employers may cut off access to work during leave, but doing so requires some careful forethought.
NewsIndustry NewsAssociate Benefits & CompensationHR GeneralistFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)In-Depth ArticleFamily and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)Associate RelationsEnglishHR ManagementFocus AreaHuman ResourcesUSA
2025-03-27T05:00:00Z
Who can fill out FMLA forms? The answer might surprise you
One of the most common questions involving the federal Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) that we see is: “Can ________ fill out the medical certification?”
This question stumps a lot of HR people and can be a little confusing.
It might be easier to start with who CAN’T fill out an FMLA certification. That includes your coworker, best friend, neighbor, or pet.
Jokes aside, often (but not always) a doctor fills out the FMLA certification, and since March 30 is “Doctors’ Day,” this is a great time to discuss this topic.
FMLA certification basics
Employers aren’t required to use certifications, but if they do, the U.S. Department of Labor (DOL) has five different certification forms to use for various FMLA leave situations.
The forms are as follows:
- Certification of Health Care Provider for Employee's Serious Health Condition,
- Certification of Health Care Provider for Family Member's Serious Health Condition,
- Certification of Qualifying Exigency for Military Family Leave,
- Certification for Serious Injury or Illness of a Current Servicemember for Military Family Leave, and
- Certification for Serious Injury or Illness of a Veteran for Military Family Leave.
Let’s focus on the first two, as these are the most common ones HR administrators use.
Who can fill out an FMLA certification?
The FMLA regulations describe the person who has the authority to fill out a certification as a “health care provider.” The good news is, the regulations include a lengthy list of medical professionals who fit this role.
Under the FMLA, a health care provider includes:
- A doctor of medicine or osteopathy,
- A podiatrist,
- A dentist,
- A clinical psychologist,
- An optometrist,
- A chiropractor (limited to manual manipulation of the spine as demonstrated by X-ray),
- A nurse practitioner,
- A nurse midwife,
- A clinical social worker,
- A physician assistant,
- A Christian Science practitioner, and
- Any health care provider from whom the employer or the employer's group health plan's benefits manager will accept a medical certification to substantiate a claim for benefits.
To be qualified to fill out FMLA forms, medical professionals must be authorized to practice in the state and perform within the scope of their practice. This means that the provider must be authorized to diagnose and treat physical or mental health conditions.
What about doctors in a foreign country?
If an employee or an employee's family member is visiting another country, or a family member resides in another country, and a serious health condition develops, the employer must accept a medical certification from a health care provider who practices in that country. This includes second and third opinions.
If a medical certification from a foreign health care provider is not in English, the employee may be required to provide a written translation of the certification.
Key to remember: The FMLA regulations spell out which medical professionals can fill out certification forms.
NewsIndustry NewsEnglishHR GeneralistIn-Depth ArticleEmployee Mental HealthAssociate RelationsWellnessWellnessHR ManagementFocus AreaUSAHuman Resources
2026-05-15T05:00:00Z
Laughter beats LOL: Face-to-face communication brings mental health benefits
Employees may not be excited about commuting to work, but may be heartened to know that there are mental health benefits to gathering with others in the workplace.
Video calls, texting, and other communication technology make it easy to “socialize alone,” or connect with others when you’re by yourself. While this is better than nothing, it doesn’t measure up to meeting face-to-face.
Research published recently in Perspective on Psychological Science looked at more than 1,000 communication studies and found that when people communicate over technology, they:
- Are less engaged, and
- Don’t have the same positive emotional responses.
“Electronic communication is here to stay, so we need to learn how to integrate it into our lives,” Roy Baumeister, professor of psychology at the University of Queensland and the study’s lead author, noted in a news release. “But if it replaces live interactions, you’re going to be missing some important benefits and probably be less fulfilled.”
The researchers couldn’t find health benefits to typing “LOL” into a text, Baumeister pointed out, while they found a lot of research pointing to the benefits of laughing out loud.
Mental health boost
Another study that looked at communication during the COVID-19 pandemic, published in the journal Nature, found that mental health was better on days when more time was spent communicating face-to-face.
This could be because in-person communication provides the opportunity to take in the nuances of body language, voice pitch, and eye gaze.
While videoconferencing also offers the opportunity to see those cues, researchers found it can be taxing because of prolonged eye contact, a focus on appearance, and larger faces due to screen size.
An impact on learning
Another drawback to socializing alone is that information isn’t processed as thoroughly as it is in face-to-face situations, Baumeister’s study found. This may make an impact on decision-making and learning in online groups.
In addition, although shy people may prefer typing their comments into a chat, some people may be more likely to say something harmful when communicating online.
Motivation, participation help
The study found two qualities that improve the impact of online communication:
- Motivation to be engaged and
- Full participation with each other.
For example, researchers found high levels of engagement in workers who were highly committed, as well as people in online psychotherapy sessions and people who were romantically involved.
While technology offers more opportunities for interaction, and can be an effective way to communicate when people are highly motivated to meet, it often lacks the benefits of being physically present with the people you’re talking to.
“Humans were shaped by evolution to be highly social,” Bushman added. “But many of the benefits of social interactions are lost or reduced when you interact with people who are not present with you.”
Key to remember: Face-to-face interactions at work support engagement and boost mental health.
Most Popular Highlights In Safety & Health
NewsIndustry NewsSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyAgriculture SafetyMaritime SafetyIn-Depth ArticleHazard CommunicationHazCom Written ProgramEnglishFocus AreaUSA
2026-05-06T05:00:00Z
Got chemicals? You may need a written HazCom program
What triggers the need for a written Hazard Communication (HazCom) program? The answer to this popular Expert Help question depends on certain requirements, definitions, and exceptions within the standard at 29 CFR 1910.1200. Simply put, if all four of the following statements apply, you must develop, implement, and maintain a written HazCom program at each workplace:
- Your organization is an employer. OSHA defines “employer” at 1910.1200(c) as “a person engaged in a business where chemicals are either used, distributed, or are produced for use or distribution, including a contractor or subcontractor.”
- The HazCom standard applies. If you’re an employer, the standard applies if you have any hazardous chemical that’s known to be present in the workplace in such a manner that employees may be exposed under normal conditions of use or in a foreseeable emergency. “Hazardous chemical” means any chemical which is classified as a physical or health hazard, simple asphyxiant, combustible dust, or hazard not otherwise classified (HNOC).
- At least one area/operation of the workplace where hazardous chemicals are present is covered by 1910.1200 and not simply exempted under paragraph (b)(3) or (b)(4). According to these paragraphs, OSHA does not require a written HazCom program to be developed for:
- Laboratories [Note: See our Lab applicability FAQ for details on when a laboratory is covered by 1910.1450 or 1910.1200.], or
- Work operations where employees only handle chemicals in sealed containers that are not opened under normal conditions of use, such as those found in marine cargo handling, warehousing, or retail sales.
It should be noted, however, that these operations do have other obligations under the HazCom standard, outlined at 1910.1200(b)(3) and (b)(4).
- At least one hazardous chemical in the workplace is covered by the standard and is not exempted under 1910.1200(b)(6). (Paragraph (b)(6) exempts certain substances from coverage by the HazCom standard.)
What information must the written program include?
Paragraph (e) of 1910.1200 outlines written program requirements. Although the program doesn’t need to be lengthy or complicated, it must include enough detail to explain how your organization is complying with the HazCom standard. There are specific elements OSHA will look for to ensure compliance:
- A list of the hazardous chemicals known to be present in the workplace that matches the identifier on the container label and the safety data sheet (SDS).
- The designation of person(s) responsible for ensuring labeling of in-house containers and the person(s) responsible for ensuring labeling of shipped containers (if any).
- A description of any in-house labeling system(s) and any labeling alternatives used in the facility (if applicable).
- A description of HazCom training provided to employees.
- Procedures to review and update label information when necessary.
- Methods used to inform employees of the hazards of non-routine tasks, such as cleaning reactor vessels, and the hazards of unlabeled pipes in their work areas.
- An explanation of how the employer will comply on multi-employer worksites. Employers on multi-employer worksites who do not use hazardous chemicals, but whose employees are exposed to the chemicals used by other employers on the worksite, are required to have a program and train their employees on the hazards of the chemicals in the work areas.
Key to remember: If you’re covered by the HazCom standard, you may need a written program. It must include specific elements listed in 1910.1200(e).
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2026-05-12T05:00:00Z
First HazCom compliance date almost here!
OSHA’s revised Hazard Communication (HazCom) standard, which took effect in July 2024, includes staggered compliance dates stretching into 2028. The first of these is just around the corner. By May 19, 2026, chemical manufacturers, importers, and distributors evaluating substances must be in compliance with all modified provisions of the standard. (“Substance” is defined in 1910.1200(c).) This means manufacturers and importers must reclassify aerosols, desensitized explosives, and flammable gases under the new criteria in Appendix B to 1910.1200 and make corresponding changes to safety data sheets (SDSs) and labels.
Additionally, these manufacturers, importers, and distributors must comply with changes to the following elements, as applicable:
- Labels for packages released for shipment, bulk shipments, and small containers;
- SDS subsections; and
- Trade secrets.
Downstream users of substances that are aerosols, desensitized explosives, or flammable gases will start to see updated SDSs and labels on shipped containers of hazardous chemicals (if they haven’t already). For more information, see our related FAQ.
NewsIn-Depth ArticleEnglishHeat StressIndustry NewsHeat and Cold ExposureSafety & HealthConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyAgriculture SafetyMaritime SafetyExtreme Temperature PreparationHeat and Cold ExposureMine SafetyFocus AreaUSA
2026-05-13T05:00:00Z
How does wet-bulb globe temperature work?
As you prepare for heat injury and illness prevention regulations, are you leaning toward Heat Index simply because you don’t understand WetBulb Globe Temperature (WBGT)? Don’t sweat it! We will cool your anxiety as you read on.
What is WBGT?
Developed by the US military in the 1950s to prevent heat-related deaths in training camps, WBGT is a measure of the heat stress in direct sunlight. It takes into account more than just temperature, including considerations for humidity, wind speed, cloud cover, and even sun angle.
The Heat Index, on the other hand, considers only temperature and humidity for shady areas. So, if employees are working in direct sunlight, the WBGT may be the better way to monitor.
How does WBGT work?
WBGT calculates three key measurements into one equation:
- Air temperature – measured with a standard outdoor thermometer to show the actual temperature of the air. This gives a baseline for how hot the environment is without the effects of humidity, wind, or radiant heat (sunlight).
- Natural wet bulb temperature – measured using a thermometer wrapped in a wet cloth to simulate the cooling effect of evaporating sweat. Readings can be strongly influenced by wind and humidity, and because the thermometer is exposed to sunlight, it also reflects solar heat.
- Black globe temperature – measured with a thermometer inside a black globe to represent how hot human skin and clothing “feels” in direct sunlight. Readings are of radiant heat that air temperature alone wouldn’t capture.
In layman’s terms, as the water evaporates from the wet, wrapped bulb, the bulb is cooled which pushes the wet-bulb temperature down. Added air moisture (humidity) means less water evaporates and cooling is not as effective. This means the WBGT is high.
Mathematically, here’s how the measurements are used to calculate WBGT:
WBGT = (10% × Air Temp) + (70% × Wet Bulb Temp) + (20% × Black Globe Temp)
For a simplified example, if the air temperature is measured at 80°F, the relative humidity is 80%, and the globe temperature is 80°F, the WBGT would be calculated as follows:
WBGT= (0.1 × 80) + (0.7 × 80) + (0.2 × 80)
= 8 + 56 + 16
= 80°F
This result is a WBGT of 80°F which is a relatively high level of heat stress.
To put this into perspective, studies show that a WBGT of around 87.5°F is nearing the maximum temperature that a healthy worker can handle. Though the number seems palatable, this level of heat with humidity can be stifling and deadly.
OSHA’s proposed Heat Rule update
OSHA held an informal public hearing over multiple days in June and July 2025, concluding on July 2nd. A final ruling has not yet been published to the Federal Register. OSHA’s Rulemaking Process can take between 24 and 60 months to review feedback, analyze the record, and develop a final rule.
In the meantime, employers should comply with their State plan state requirements or OSHA’s National Emphasis Program (NEP) on Outdoor and Indoor Heat-Related Hazards. The federal NEP was recently revised and became effective April 10, 2026, with updates including the removal of outdated background information, reorganization of appendices information and citation guidance, and the addition of inspection triggers.
Key to remember: The weighted approach of WBGT factors in temperature, direct sunlight, humidity, wind, and cloud cover, all of which have an impact on the body’s ability to cool itself.
NewsDrug and Alcohol TestingDrug and alcohol policy - Motor CarrierDrug and Alcohol TestingDrug and Alcohol Testing - DOTDrug testing - Motor CarrierDrug and alcohol training - Motor CarrierIn-Depth ArticleUSAHR ManagementEnglishIndustry NewsFleet SafetySafety & HealthGeneral Industry SafetyFocus AreaPre-employment drug testing - Motor CarrierSafety-sensitive function - Motor CarrierTransportationHuman Resources
2023-09-28T05:00:00Z
Canada’s drug testing rules will leave you in a haze
Ever since Canada legalized recreational cannabis back in 2018, it has left many motor carriers wondering if they can drug test their drivers. Impairment from cannabis use is a safety risk, and for most employers, performing drug tests to manage the risk is not an option. Where do motor carriers and drivers fit in, and what are their options?
Submitting employees to drug tests
Can motor carriers drug test their drivers? The short answer is no. Canada does not have a federal regulation that requires drug testing for drivers. However, this does not mean that Canadian motor carriers cannot implement and enforce a drug and alcohol policy for their drivers. In fact, many carriers have developed successful policies that minimize the risk of getting in trouble with the law and ensure the safety of their drivers and the public.
For the most part, drug testing not only violates the Human Rights Code, but it is also a gross infringement on an individual’s reasonable right to protection of privacy. Motor carriers operating in Canada need to make sure they consider the human rights and privacy rights of their drivers when implementing any type of drug testing program and policy.
Motor carriers have the right to expect their drivers to arrive at work fit for duty and remain that way throughout the duration of their shift. Communicating this expectation to them is important and, at a minimum, should be communicated by implementing a ”fit-for-work” policy that makes your expectations around impairment of any kind clear.
When drug testing may be permissible
There are some circumstances in which drug testing is allowed, though they are rare and very specific.
1. Safety-sensitive positions: Universal random drug testing would be acceptable in workplaces that can be shown to be extremely dangerous and where a worker’s impairment would likely result in catastrophe. Based on this definition commercial truck drivers would be considered to be in a safety-sensitive position.
2. Reasonable suspicion of impairment: If an employee appears to be obviously impaired, drug testing may be permissible, especially if they’re involved in a collision and there is reasonable suspicion that they are under the influence of drugs.
3. As part of a rehabilitation/return-to-work program: A driver with substance abuse disorder may be subject to unannounced drug testing to be carried out as part of a rehabilitation program and return-to-work program.
Unlike in the United States, pre-employment drug testing is generally not permitted in Canada, except in limited circumstances. Each Canadian province has its own legislation regarding testing for drugs. In Alberta, the courts have been less protective of individual privacy rights and have allowed drug testing in the oil and gas sector. Most companies in Ontario and British Columbia opt not to test for drugs, adhering to human rights legislation and privacy concerns.
Policies must be clear
Motor carriers must inform their drivers about the drug and alcohol policy and unlike U.S. testing programs, are required to obtain their consent before conducting any test. By working together, motor carriers and drivers can create a safe and healthy work environment for everyone involved.
Carriers should update their policies addressing drug and alcohol use at least once per year. Carriers must pay close attention to:
- Permissible testing for the jurisdictions they operate in, including if they cross the border into the United States;
- Frequent reminders for drivers on their obligations under the policies; and
- Training for managers and supervisors on detecting impairment through physical symptoms.
Key to remember: Drug testing in Canada is legal but not regulated, so carriers must exercise caution when implementing a drug testing policy. There’s a fine line between allowable testing and human rights/employee privacy violations.
NewsMine SafetyForklifts and Powered TrucksTraining & DevelopmentOccupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), DOLPIT Training RequirementsIn-Depth ArticleUSAEnglishIndustry NewsSafety & HealthForklifts and Powered TrucksConstruction SafetyGeneral Industry SafetyAgriculture SafetyMaritime SafetySafe Operation of PITsFocus AreaHuman Resources
2023-07-06T05:00:00Z
Commonly asked questions about forklift licensure and certification
Are your forklift operators certified? Do they need a state driver’s license? Are they physically able to operate forklifts? All are commonly asked questions — so, let’s make sure you're compliant.
The intent of the standard
OSHA’s powered industrial truck (PIT) standard (29 CFR 1910.178) is intended to ensure the safe use of fork trucks, tractors, platform lift trucks, motorized hand trucks, and other specialized industrial trucks powered by electric motors or internal combustion engines. The standard outlines requirements for operational permits and certification.
And, though not specified in the standard itself, PIT operators must be at least 18 years old per federal child labor regulations.
License and certification Q&A
The OSHA PIT standard clearly defines requirements for training and certification. However, some licensing and certification information isn’t as clear. Here are some clarifications:
Q: Who can train, evaluate, and certify PIT operators?
A: OSHA requires in 1910.178(l)(2)(iii) that, “All operator training and evaluation shall be conducted by persons who have the knowledge, training, and experience to train powered industrial truck operators and evaluate their competence.” The OSHA standard doesn’t further define this requirement or set any specific or additional certifications.
Q: Does OSHA require PIT operators to have a valid driver's license?
A: Federal OSHA has no requirement that a forklift operator has a valid motor vehicle driver's license. Some states are more stringent, so check your local and state requirements to confirm.
Q: Does OSHA have regulations that impact an employee’s ability to operate PITs if they’ve received a DUI or suspended license?
A: Because OSHA doesn't require a valid motor vehicle driver's license, the status of that license doesn’t impact PIT operator permitting. Individual states or the employer may have policies that dictate otherwise.
Q: Are PIT drivers required to have their license on them when they are working?
A: Federal OSHA doesn’t require PIT operators to have a license or permit. However, some states such as Michigan do require this. Typically, in states that require a permit or license, the license must be “readily available.” Companies have the option to require the permit or license be carried with the operator.
Q: Are operators required to be trained on each manufacture of PIT model?
A: A June 15, 1999, OSHA letter of interpretation (LOI) clarifies that operators are to be trained and evaluated in the safe operation for the type of truck they’ll be assigned. Operators wouldn’t need additional training for same truck types but would need additional training when truck- or workplace-related training topics are different.
Q: Do PIT operators need to be recertified if they move from one state to another with the same company?
A: In an LOI dated October 1, 1999, OSHA states, "As long as the employer has a reasonable basis to believe that the third-party trainer is qualified and has a program that meets the requirements of the standard, it can rely on that trainer to conduct the training and evaluation of employees and can certify that these employees have been trained. However, the employer may need to provide additional training on site-specific or truck-specific matters." This shouldn’t require retraining for the same type of forklift as already certified; however, workplace conditions or other factors of the new work location may require training for forklift operation in the other state(s).
| Interested in information on how material handler training can help forklift operators? See our Compliance Network article "To improve forklift safety, train material handlers." |
Operator Impairments
In addition to being properly trained and evaluated, OSHA expects employers to ensure physical capabilities. OSHA references the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Standard B56.1-1969. Section 6 clarifies that, “Operators of powered industrial trucks shall be physically qualified. An examination should be made on an annual basis and include such things as field of vision, hearing, depth perception, and reaction timing."
Employers should consider OSHA PIT regulations and the General Duty Clause, ANSI standards, and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) requirements when evaluating physical qualifications. In short, if a worker demonstrates the visual, auditory, and mental ability to safely operate PITs, he or she is permitted to operate them.
Keys to Remember
OSHA requires employers ensure the safe use of forklifts and other powered industrial vehicles. Employers must ensure operators have the knowledge, skills, and physical ability to safely operate PITs.
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2026-04-21T05:00:00Z
OSHA revokes House Falls in Marine Terminals standard
On April 17, OSHA revoked its House Falls in Marine Terminals standard at 1917.41 after determining that the standard is no longer necessary to protect marine terminal employees from occupational safety and health (S&H) hazards. Since most cargo has been containerized and is moved by cranes, OSHA determined that removing 1917.41 would help reduce the compliance burden without compromising worker safety.
The standard, initially adopted in 1983, addressed serious S&H hazards within marine terminal operations and required:
- Span beams be secured to prevent accidental dislodgement;
- A safe means of access for employees working with house fall blocks; and
- Daily inspection of chains, links, shackles, swivels, blocks and other loose gear to prevent the use of defective equipment.
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